Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy

QQ:

How come "the deal" is plural? shouldn't it be "provision for penalties if the deal was"

Thanks!

Good question. This sentence is using (what's called) subjunctive, which is typically used to depict hypothetical situations.

Some examples:

If Michael were to become the President, he would focus on removing poverty.

If Peter were a magician, he would wave a magic wand.

p.s. Our book EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses Subjunctive, its application and examples in significant detail. If you or someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.

A. Correct
B. 'for buying' is the incorrect idiom. Also, hypothetical subjunctive requires 'if ...were'.
C. Usage of 'be signed' is incorrect. Also, 'them' cannot refer to the 'Bank', which makes this
sentence incorrect.
D. 'Not one of ' is singular. Also, hypothetical subjunctive requires 'if ...were'.
E. 'Not one of ' is singular.

Hi GMATNinja can you please explain why Option A is correct here ('that' modifier placed right after a verb), while in this question https://gmatclub.com/forum/because-an-oversupply-of-computer-chips-has-sent-prices-plunging-64392.html, Option C is wrong ('which' modifier placed right after a verb)?

Thanks!

gmatwhiz GMATNinja egmat can you please post detailed explanation for this question ?

gmatwhiz GMATNinja egmat can you please post detailed explanation for this question ?

did not understand why were and not was ? egmat GMATNinja

Hello Aannie,

We hope this finds you well.

Having gone through the question and your query, we believe we can resolve your doubts.

Here, the use of "were" is correct in reference to the singular noun "deal", as the subjunctive mood is in use; the phrase "if the deal were not to be concluded" refers to a hypothetical scenario, so the subjunctive mood is preferred, and this sentence uses the construction “wishful trigger (if) + plural form of the verb (were)”.

Remember, “wishful trigger (if) + plural form of the verb” is a correct, subjunctive usage; for example: "If I were an athlete, I would be super fit.". In an imaginative context, subjunctive mood is a preferred usage for conveying the intended meaning effectively.

To understand the concept of "Subjunctive Mood" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~20 minutes):



All the best!
Experts' Global Team

(A) is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were
The meaning is perfect therefore let us hang on to it

(B) is expected to make an offer for buying First Interstate Bank until they sign a merger agreement including a provision for penalties if the deal was
they is not having the right reference therefore out

(C) is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement be signed by them with a provision for penalties if the deal were
be sign by them of style and not making much sense therefore out

(D) are expected to make an offer for buying First Interstate Bank until it signs a merger agreement with a provision for penalties included if the deal was
it isn't the right reference therefore out

(E) are expected to be making an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until they sign a merger agreement including a provision for penalties if the deal were
Similar reasoning as B

THerefore IMO A

GMATNinja, can you please help to explain the usage of past tense ''if they were''. I did not pick ans choice A right away because of the usage of past tense in ''if they were''. Past tense does not match to present tense used in the previous clause.

Hello tkorzhan1995,

We hope this finds you well.

Having gone through the question and your query, we believe we can resolve your doubt.

The past tense verb "were" is correct here, as it is part of a conditional phrase "if the deal were not to be concluded" that refers to the noun "penalties"; logically, "penalties" would be incurred only after the deal was not concluded, so from the perspective of the "penalties", this action is in the past.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team

ExpertsGlobal5, why if it is referring back to penalties, past tense should be used?

Hello tkorzhan1995,

We hope this finds you well.

The past tense must be used because the penalties would only be incurred after the deal was not concluded; thus, when talking about the penalties, it is assumed that the hypothetical situation of the deal not concluding has already occurred, meaning past tense must be used to refer to the action.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team

Hi i remember the SANAM Rule to which, if the Some, Any, None, All, More / Most from Manhatan prep guide
If the noun is a countable noun (nouns for which the plural form exists), then the verb is plural.
If the noun is an uncountable noun (nouns for which only the singular forms exists), then the verb is singular. ---> and in this case None of the investors - should be followed by ARE? hmm- would anyone be able to explain this?

Hello rdrdrd1201,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, this sentence does not actually use the word "none", rather it uses the pronoun phrase "Not one"; since the pronoun "one" is singular, the singular verb phrase "is expected" must be used.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team

in choice A]

''that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were''

when if conditional is used in past tense, should not we say 'included' instead of includes?

isn't this a rule?

Hi GMATNinja , andrewng , KarishmaB , MartyTargetTestPrep and all other experts,
Why does this sentence in need of a subjunctive mood (option A)? It's not presenting any hypothetical or non-real scenario. It should have been a simple conditional statement.