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In all the Kaplan explanations for probability questions, it always says, "It is easier for us to find the probability of XYZ not occurring".
Can anyone explain why that is? Why can't we just find the probability of XYZ actually occurring?
For example, in the question above, they tell us outwardly the probability of Components Y and Z operating properly, 0.4 and 0.3 respectively. My inclination is to simply multiply the probability of Component X working (0.8) with the probabilities of Y or Z working, 0.8 * (0.4 + 0.3) = 0.56. While, I know that the incorrect answer, why doesn't this simple approach work?
The explanation states that you must first find the probability of Y and Z NOT operating properly, i.e.
1 - 0.4 = 0.6
1 - 0.3 = 0.7
Then multiply them to get 0.42 and subtract it from 1 to find the probability of either Y or Z operating properly, which is 0.58. At that point you just multiply 0.58 by 0.8 and the answer is 0.464.
If anyone can shed light on this, I'd appreciate it. Thanks everyone!
If I have understood this correctly, your approach assumes that the other (third) machine never works in each of your scenarios. This is incorrect. Let me explain.
0.8 * (0.4 + 0.3) = 0.8 * 0.4 + 0.8 * 0.3 = A working * B working + A working * C working
In these cases, you're not considering the probability of a third machine [C and B respectively] working or not working, therefore, the implicit assumption in your approach is that C always doesn't work in Case 1 (P(C')=1) and B always doesn't work in Case 2 (P(B') = 1). But we know that's not the case because the question defines the possibilities for B and C working. Therefore, it is important to explicitly define the probability of the machine not working or else it defaults to x1 which is wrong.
Note that you're also ignoring the event when both B and C work along with A, so the approach is flawed overall.