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Re: Archaeologists in Michigan have excavated a Native American camp near [#permalink]
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Quote:
I have one query

The main reason why I eliminated option B was that option B says that "European goods have been found at all camps in the region that have been reliably dated to the late 1620's. I believe this rather narrows down the scope to only 1620s. It can very well mean that the site could have existed during the early 1700s.

Could you please help me on this one?


This is an incorrect understanding. When it says 1620's, it means as early as that. So every camp dated which is upto as old as that does contain European goods. That effectively eliminates the possibility you have presented.
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Re: Archaeologists in Michigan have excavated a Native American camp near [#permalink]
need help in eliminating C. I think its strengthening by saying that these goods were preserved and still no such goods were found. please help.
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Re: Archaeologists in Michigan have excavated a Native American camp near [#permalink]
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pk6969 wrote:
need help in eliminating C. I think its strengthening by saying that these goods were preserved and still no such goods were found. please help.

Take a look at this post and see whether that clears it up!
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Re: Archaeologists in Michigan have excavated a Native American camp near [#permalink]
VeritasKarishma Whats wrong with C? What if all European goods would have been destroyed?
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Re: Archaeologists in Michigan have excavated a Native American camp near [#permalink]
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akshat3010 wrote:
VeritasKarishma Whats wrong with C? What if all European goods would have been destroyed?


We are talking about trade goods of 1600s. "Careful preservation" does not imply that had they been there, we would have found them. Whether you are careful with the goods or not, while talking about centuries, it wouldn't make much difference. Perhaps they disintegrated over the years.
But (B) clearly states that at all camp sites after 1620s, the goods have been found. It means they don't deteriorate and last long enough to be found. Hence if this camp site did have them, it is likely that at least some goods would have been found.
Hence, (B) makes much more sense than (C).
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Archaeologists in Michigan have excavated a Native American camp near [#permalink]
Understanding the argument -
The conclusion is The camp is probably dated no later than 1630. Meaning it no way belongs to a date after 1630. What will support it? If we know that after 1630 sites have 100% evidence of something that this site is missing.

Option Elimination -

(A) Due to trade among Native Americans, some European trade goods would have reached the area before the European traders themselves did. We know that traders were active in the 1620s. Let's say the good reached this site before 1620. Then what? Are we 100% sure that those goods could have survived and were not further exchanged for something else? Moreover, the author could have said that the site dates no later than the early 1620s. Yes, I agree this doesn't weaken. But at the same time, it doesn't provide a solid reason as well to say with 100% confidence that this site has to be before the 1630s. This is classic distortion.

(B) At all camps in the region that have been reliably dated to the late 1620's, remains of European trade goods have been found. - See "all." So it means that definitely, had this been after 1630, we should have gotten some European trade goods. So it is before 1930. It may be 1620 or 1625 or before, but definitely not after 1630. ok.

(C) The first European trade goods to reach the area would have been considered especially valuable and preserved as much as possible from loss or destruction. - Another classic distortion. Does it even address the dating aspect of the argument? No.

(D) The first European traders in the area followed soon after the first European explorers. - Out of scope.

(E) The site is that of a temporary camp that would have been used seasonally for a few years and then abandoned. - it doesn't help explain the dating aspect. Distortion.
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