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Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy

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Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Aug 2015, 11:50
lastminutemba wrote:
Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger
agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were not to be concluded.


A. is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement is signed that includes a
provision for penalties if the deal were
B. is expected to make an offer for buying First Interstate Bank until they sign a merger agreement including a
provision for penalties if the deal was
C. is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement be signed by them with a
provision for penalties if the deal were
D. are expected to make an offer for buying First Interstate Bank until it signs a merger agreement with a provision
for penalties included if the deal was
E. are expected to be making an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until they sign a merger agreement including a
provision for penalties if the deal were

F. Not one of the potential investors are expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were

My Question is -

Is the answer choice F correct too?

What is the difference in meaning between sentence A and sentence F ?


lastminutemba

Answer choice F is not correct. If you eliminate the adjective clause "of the potential investors", you will see that the verb is/are must go with "Not one". At this point, it is easy to determine that "is" is the correct verb tense.

Hope this helps.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Aug 2015, 22:58
1
1
1 and 2 are both incorrect. The subject "Not one" needs a verb, and that verb must be "is." In the example about Icelandic, that subject already has a verb ("Icelandic is . . . "). When we get to "that are compact," that phrase is simply modifying "languages." It doesn't contain the main verb. Let's look at 1 again to compare:

1. Not one of the potential investors are greedy.

The portion in italics works by itself. "Investors are greedy" is a fine sentence. However, the subject (in bold) is left with no verb. We can only use "are" to apply to investors is we have a verb for "Not one" somewhere else:

Not one of my managers realizes that the potential investors are greedy.

This clearly has a different meaning, but now that "Not one" has a verb ("realizes"), we can apply "are" to investors. (Notice that since "Not one" doesn't make sense by itself, I had to add an extra noun modifier ("of my managers.")

We could also place the main verb after the modifier:

Not one of the potential investors who are greedy will agree to the proposed terms.

Notice here that "are" works correctly with "investors," but only because we added a modifier signal: "who." By adding a modifier directly to "investors," we ensure that the verb applies to them.

2 works exactly the same way. We need a verb for "Not one," so we have to go with is.

3 is different because the word "none" is not definitively singular or plural. It takes its singular/plural status from the context of the sentence:

None of the ice cream is fresh.
None of my friends are here.

You can memorize the words that work this way with the acronym SANAM: Some, Any, None, All, More/Most.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Aug 2015, 09:44
Thanks a lot Dmitry. I understand it now.


I have gone through the MGMAT SANAM pronouns. It is mentioned that None is not singular/plural and it will depend on the context of the sentence.

So in this sentence are is correct. - RIGHT?

None of the potential investors are expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger
agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were not to be concluded.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Aug 2015, 06:02
lastminutemba wrote:
Thanks a lot Dmitry. I understand it now.


I have gone through the MGMAT SANAM pronouns. It is mentioned that None is not singular/plural and it will depend on the context of the sentence.

So in this sentence are is correct. - RIGHT?

None of the potential investors are expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger
agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were not to be concluded.



lastminutemba -

Yes, your sentence is correct - and Dmitry did a far better job (more in depth) than I did. Good luck!
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Feb 2016, 04:43
1
1
The subject is singular ‘one’ and therefore hence the verb should be ‘is’. Remove D and E.

A. is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were - correct choice --- 1. using the right form of the verb is 2.using the correct idiom ‘to buy’ and 3. the past subjunctive verb ‘were’ for a hypothetical situation.

B. is expected to make an offer for buying First Interstate Bank until they sign a merger agreement including a provision for penalties if the deal was – the wrong choice because of incorrect idiom and the use of simple past ‘was’

C. is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement be signed by them with a provision for penalties if the deal were – Wrong because of the use of the present command subjunctive ‘ be signed’ and for using a pronoun’ them’ without a proper referent.

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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Feb 2016, 19:33
Can someone explain why answer choice A as far as the use of "that includes" but not "that include"?

Thanks!
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New post 01 Feb 2016, 22:09
Is expected to make an offer to buy First Interstate Bank until a merger agreement is signed that includes a provision for penalties if the deal were
The relative clause ‘that includes’ modifies a merger agreement. The agreement is singular. Hence, the singular ‘includes’
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Apr 2016, 17:58
Ashokshiva wrote:
Why is option B, not correct?

Pl. explain ]

thanks



Answer choice B is not correct because of the phrase "for buying". This portion is uses an incorrect idiom. "To buy" is the correct phrase.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Apr 2016, 17:05
VeritasPrepDennis wrote:
Ashokshiva wrote:
Why is option B, not correct?

Pl. explain ]

thanks



Answer choice B is not correct because of the phrase "for buying". This portion is uses an incorrect idiom. "To buy" is the correct phrase.



Thanks for your explanation :) .

''if the deal were'' is used in option A while ''if the deal was'' is used in B.

how to i select between were & was in this qn?

pl. explain.

thanks
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Apr 2016, 18:33
deal was or deal were?
I was under the impression that deal is singular in this particular context
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Apr 2016, 23:39
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KbSharma wrote:
deal was or deal were?
I was under the impression that deal is singular in this particular context

Hi! Indeed, deal is singular, but in the context that it is used here, the usage comes under hypothetical subjunctive.

In hypothetical subjunctive, the appropriate verb used is were, irrespective of whether the subject is singular or plural.

p.s. Our book EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses subjunctive, its application and examples in significant detail. If someone is interested, PM me your email-id, I can mail the corresponding section.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Apr 2016, 12:55
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Ashokshiva wrote:
VeritasPrepDennis wrote:
Ashokshiva wrote:
Why is option B, not correct?

Pl. explain ]

thanks



Answer choice B is not correct because of the phrase "for buying". This portion is uses an incorrect idiom. "To buy" is the correct phrase.



Thanks for your explanation :) .

''if the deal were'' is used in option A while ''if the deal was'' is used in B.

how to i select between were & was in this qn?

pl. explain.

thanks


Ashokshiva wrote:
Why is option B, not correct?

Pl. explain ]

thanks


If we want to describe a hypothetical event in future within an IF clause, we are required to use a hypothetical subjunctive case. The hypothetical subjunctive case takes a simple past form (although the event would or would not occur in the future). Only for the verb to be the hypothetical subjunctive becomes "were" instead of "was".

If I became the king, I would eradicate poverty. (verb: to become - hypothetical subjunctive used for an unlikely future event. form: simple past)
If I were the king, I would eradicate poverty. (verb: to be - hypothetical subjunctive used for an unlikely future event. form: simple past - but instead of "was","were" is used.)

Option B is incorrect, because simple past is used rather than a hypothetical subjunctive to indicate a hypothetical event.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Jan 2017, 14:17
Hi sayantanc2k
Sorry to bother.

A is easily the best option here, but is it not violating subjunctive rule?
If we use " if...were...to" structure, don't we need would be expected to make?

Please refer to this Magoosh blog
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-gram ... ive-tense/

I'd appreciate if you could point out my flaw in understanding.

Cheers
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Jan 2017, 19:56
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TheRzS wrote:
Hi sayantanc2k
Sorry to bother.

A is easily the best option here, but is it not violating subjunctive rule?
If we use " if...were...to" structure, don't we need would be expected to make?

Please refer to this Magoosh blog
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-gram ... ive-tense/

I'd appreciate if you could point out my flaw in understanding.

Cheers
RzS


Your point is valid for a complete IF...THEN.. structure for an unlikely case in future:

IF hypothetical subjunctive, THEN conditional (unlikely future case).

The construction in option A is not such a case - using hypothetical subjunctive does not necessarily call for a conditional would.

"Not one of the potential investors is expected" is NOT within a THEN clause corresponding to "IF the deal were...", and hence conditional is not required.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Jan 2017, 20:38
Hi sayantanc2k,

I have seen few comments on this topic and some people said that "they" or "them" used in option B and C does not have a clear antecedent.

I think in this case "they" or "them" refers to potential investors which is present in the propositional phrase. Even in e-gmat verbal chapters, it is said that pronoun can have antecedent in prepositional phrase.

Please correct me in my understanding if it is wrong, and are we striking down B and C only because they lack subjunctive mood or any other reason?
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Jan 2017, 22:14
RMD007 wrote:
Hi sayantanc2k,

I have seen few comments on this topic and some people said that "they" or "them" used in option B and C does not have a clear antecedent.

I think in this case "they" or "them" refers to potential investors which is present in the propositional phrase. Even in e-gmat verbal chapters, it is said that pronoun can have antecedent in prepositional phrase.

Please correct me in my understanding if it is wrong, and are we striking down B and C only because they lack subjunctive mood or any other reason?


A pronoun may refer to a noun which is an object of preposition.

Option B is wrong because of wrong usage of hypothetical subjunctive... should be "if the deal WERE" instead of "if the deal WAS".
Option C is wrong because of unnecessary usage of command subjunctive..... should be "a merger agreement IS signed " instead of "until a merger agreement BE signed".
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 02 May 2017, 09:58
Hi,

I am not getting how Option A is correct here... if you see clause "that...".. how come this clause modifies Noun Agreement? Ideally, it should modify preceding verb.

Also, I don't understand usage of Subjunctive here.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 03 May 2017, 20:17
Is the use of 'was' correct here? Can you please explain with examples the 'if X was/were' split?
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 04 May 2017, 04:32
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DigitsnLetters wrote:
Is the use of 'was' correct here? Can you please explain with examples the 'if X was/were' split?


There are certain standard tense rules for IF.. THEN... constructions - the one relevant here is as follows:

An unlikely future event:
IF [hypothetical subjunctive], THEN [conditional].

IF I went to the professor, I would be ready with an answer.

The above sentence implies that most likely I will not go to the professor. But in case I go, I will be ready with an answer.

The verb "went" is in hypothetical subjunctive case (hypothetical subjunctive is always in simple past).
The verb "would be" is conditional.

Exception in hypothetical subjunctive: When the verb "to be" is used in hypothetical sunjunctive, "were" is used instead of "was".

If I was in power, I would first deal with corruption.... wrong
If I were in power, I would first deal with corruption... right
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy  [#permalink]

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New post 05 May 2017, 01:00
pratik1709 wrote:
Hi,

I am not getting how Option A is correct here... if you see clause "that...".. how come this clause modifies Noun Agreement? Ideally, it should modify preceding verb.

Also, I don't understand usage of Subjunctive here.


Your query 1:
There are certain standard exceptions to the modifier touch rule. They are well explained in Manhattan SC guide. This particular example falls under one of those exceptions mentioned:

If the predicate of a sentence is short while the modifier of the subject is too long compared to the predicate, then the predicate may come in between the subject and its modifier.

Your query 2:
The hypothetical subjunctive is used for an unlikely event in future: not concluding the deal is such an event. You might notice that all the options use hypothetical subjunctive (simple past form) - however for the verb "to be", the form "were" instead of "was" is used for hypothetical subjunctive.
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Re: Not one of the potential investors is expected to make an offer to buy   [#permalink] 05 May 2017, 01:00

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