VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
Practicegmat wrote:
aditya8062 wrote:
@
Kris01 ur explanation is faulty :
a ) All people agree that an apple and a potato differ in taste.
the negation of A wud be not All people agree that an apple and a potato differ in taste. that means that some people do not agree that an apple and a potato differ in taste
Could you explain further ? I still feel (a) is the answer.
Anyone from VeritasPrep can help here ?
This is a Veritas Prep QBnak question.
I went through through through explanation in the Vertias Prep QBank, but still have doubt.
First of all, the negation of (A):
(A) All people agree that an apple and a potato differ in taste.
Negation: Not all people agree that an apple and a potato differ in taste.
This means there is at least one person who does not agree that an apple and a potato differ in taste. It is still possible that taste buds are not the only sense organs involved in determining the taste of a piece of food. Even after we negate (A), the conclusion is possible so (A) is not an assumption.
Think of it this way: The given research was conducted. Blindfolded people with pinched noses found it very hard to differentiate the taste. One person comes up and says that he himself cannot differentiate between the two while looking and smelling. Does it mean that senses other than taste buds are not involved? No. There could be many other people who feel that they can easily differentiate between an apple and a potato taste. So other senses could be involved. So (A) is not your answer.
Let's negate (C)
(C) The word "taste" can be used to describe an experience that involves sight or smell or both.
Negation: The word "taste" can not be used to describe an experience that involves sight or smell or both.
It says that "taste" does not involve sight and smell. But our conclusion is based on the premise that sight and smell are involved. Hence we need (C) to be true to arrive at our conclusion.
hello and thank you for your explanation. this is indeed a very complicated question! however, I have another issue with question:
There is another major underlying assumption here:
Apples and Potatoes are different! so by giving any definition to taste, you are implying that some people may be able to differentiate between apples and potatoes. (because they are different). so by assuming that taste is an experience that involves sight or smell or both, you imply that there is a combination of features that will help some people pick apples from potatoes.
what if there is 1 person who thinks apples and Potatoes taste the same, because they are the same, therefore all their features are the same, including any definition you give to "taste". If this is the case, your whole argument will collapse, because taste buds may very well be the only organs involved in determining the taste when two objects are different!
So when we say all people agree that apples and Potatoes taste different, we logically and clearly imply that all people think apples and Potatoes are different in
at least in one feature! this is why i think "A" is the correct answer here.