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Re: S99-05 [#permalink]
Expert Reply
jainshubhams92@gmail.com wrote:
I think the correct option should be B. Only statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

This is how I approached the problem:

Question asks IS r1*i1>r2*i2, which can also be written as (i1/i2)>(r2/r1) (assuming none of the numbers are 0 or negative).

Now Statement 1 is definitely insufficient,
but for Statement 2, it says (i1/i2) > (r1/r2), now this expression also means that (i1/i2) < (r2/r1), which is our desired result. Therefore,sufficient.

Here the assumption is that all the numbers are positive, which is valid as we are comparing investments and interest rates.

Please let me know if I have missed anything in the explanation above.

Thanks!


Please check here: samantha-invests-i1-dollars-in-bond-x-which-pays-r1-102084.html
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Re: S99-05 [#permalink]
I have never heard of multiplying an inequality by another inequality ; I didn't think it was even possible.
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Re: S99-05 [#permalink]
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: S99-05 [#permalink]
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