nkrnkr wrote:
Hi,
Self introduction - a long time lurker, a first time poster.
Q3 has placed me in a very uncomfortable position. I usually get the answers right for both RC and CR, but I am missing something here in this particular question.
Q3 is a strengthen question and refers to authors 'explanation' explicitly in QS.
Again, passage explicitly states 'the laws explain'... OK, so far so good.
Now the divergence: Option-C says 'some'. OK, 'some' means at least 1, yeah maybe 2, but definitely not 'many' or even 'several'. Not convinced. Doesn't have the objectivity of scale.
Option-E: 'most' - great! Hispanic men - OK, if we consider between Hispanic Vs rest. So California belongs to Hispanic people, awesome.
Now, I connect this piece with QS 'explains', and passage 'explains' - which refers to 'the law'. And what does the law states - that women will eventually inherit the property! I mean, as I guy, if I know that even if currently the property belongs to a girl's father (Hispanic men) but there is a law that guarantees that it will go (at least equally) to her daughter after his death - then that's a motivation to pursue such an alliance!
I mean, come on! 'Law' means a 100% guarantee. And a daughter of a rich elite guy is still 'elite', even though presently she doesn't have the properties in her name - she will definitely inherit that eventually.
What am I missing? Honestly, I get the logic clear, but here 'blank'.
GMATNinjaAndrewNANY expert?
Posted from my mobile deviceHello,
nkrnkr. It is always good to hear from a new member, even one who has technically been a part of the community as a silent partner for months or years. (I am definitely more on the quiet side myself, despite appearances on this site.) I will do my best to break down the answer choices to this question so that your mind may be a little more at ease. The relevant part of the passage is the following excerpt from the end of paragraph one to the beginning of two:
Quote:
Castañeda finds that during the same period that saw non-Hispanic women being economically displaced by industrialization, Hispanic law in territorial California protected the economic position of "Californianas" (the Mexican women of the territory) by ensuring them property rights and inheritance rights equal to those of males.
For Castañeda, the laws explain a stereotypical plot created primarily by male, non-Hispanic novelists: the story of an ambitious non-hispanic merchant or trader desirous of marrying an elite Californiana.
I will refrain from commenting on the excerpt for now so that I can write a more informed, answer-specific analysis. How about we look at the answer choices, then?
Quote:
3. Which of the following, if true, would provide the most support for Castañeda’s explanation of the “stereotypical plot” mentioned in lines 18-19?
A. Non-Hispanic traders found business more profitable in California while it was a territory than when it became a state.
The plot in question revolves around non-Hispanic traders
marrying Californianas, not simply conducting business in the territory. For this simple reason, we can eliminate this one from contention.
Quote:
B. Very few marriages between Hispanic women and non-Hispanic men in nineteenth-century territorial California have actually been documented.
Not only would
very few documented marriages have greater potential to work against the explanation rather than support it, but
Hispanic women is also too broad when the stereotypical plot is centered on marriage to
an elite Californiana. We cannot lose sight of this crucial distinction.
Quote:
C. Records from the nineteenth century indicate that some large and valuable properties were owned by elite Californianas in their own right.
You will note that in the excerpt above, the end of the first paragraph mentions
property rights and inheritance rights. That
and makes a big difference in how we can interpret the laws. Californianas were granted two things: property and inheritance need not be one and the same. In other words, Californianas could own property outright, without the need for a male benefactor. This notion fits well with the answer in front of us. Unlike (B) above, here, in this answer choice,
elite Californianas are front and center, and yes, this evidence would show that some of them were, in fact, quite wealthy. I know,
some is the sort of vague language that you can often use against an answer in CR and RC, but we can only take it at face value:
some simply means
more than one. Without more numbers to qualify the information, we cannot say that
some is "definitely not 'many' or even 'several.'" Although this new information does not present proof positive to bolster the explanation Castañeda offers for the stereotypical plot, it is on point, and it strengthens that explanation more than anything else we have seen so far. We could place this one on hold while we examined the other options.
Quote:
D. Unmarried non-Hispanic women in the nineteenth-century United States were sometimes able to control property in their own right.
This group of women has nothing to do with the plot in question, so, as awful as it sounds, we could not care less about their property rights. Associative answers such as this one are the bread and butter of question-writers who want to come up with clever traps. Learn to recognize when something may strike the right notes, but in a different key. Keep moving.
Quote:
E. Most of the property in nineteenth-century territorial California was controlled by Hispanic men.
Remember, we are aiming to strengthen the reason
Castañeda believes this stereotypical Californiana plot sprang about. If
Hispanic men were the predominant landowners at the time (and they very well may have been in real life), and the literature was meant to reflect such a fact, then we would expect the stereotypical plot to incorporate more courtship (romantic or otherwise) of this group of property-owning Hispanic men. In short, this answer is little different from (D), tossing a different group of people in front of us that has nothing to do with the Californiana-non-Hispanic-male bond that is outlined in the relevant part of the passage above. The reasoning you outlined above is what I label one-step-removed logic. It makes sense. Someone could marry into a Hispanic family and then wait for the old man to kick the bucket to inherit the estate. The problem, of course, is that the plot in question does not paint such a picture, making the entire consideration irrelevant. Just stick to what the passage says, directly. The more interpretive you get, the more flummoxed you will become.
In the end, only (C) agrees with the information presented in the passage, and that is why we should choose it. I hope my analysis proves helpful to you and other GMAT™ aspirants. Good luck with your studies.
- Andrew