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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
B Vs D. Why not B ?
would LEAST contribute to an explanation of the exception to the generalization
(B) Eviction policies of the landowners in Ireland were designed to force emigration of the elderly and infirm, who could not work, and to retain a high percentage of able-bodied workers.

Removing elderly and infirm ,who could not work, from the picture doesn't change equation much.So this still doesn't explain why the wages remained low.
Appreciate any inputs on this? Also is it from MGmat? I couldn't find it at their forum.
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
4
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I also picked B. I did some research from the Manhattan Prep forum so I believe these explanations are accurate reasons as to why D is the correct answer.

So we need to find an answer choice that explains the least as to WHY HALF THE POPULATION DISAPPEARED AND NO RISE IN WAGES OCCURRED. Please note in the premise that the reason wages were increased because the lack of workers made labor so much more expensive.

lack of workers = more expensive labor = increased wages


(A) Improved medical care reduced the mortality rate among able-bodied adults in the decade following the famine to below prefamine levels.
Medical care improved and thus less people are dying. This means that the labor force did not diminish as much as it could have been. It's a good reason why wages are still high, because the labor force is still existent.

(B) Eviction policies of the landowners in Ireland were designed to force emigration of the elderly and infirm, who could not work, and to retain a high percentage of able-bodied workers.
B was the most missed answer. It states that the elderly were evicted and thus forced to leave the country. It also states that the elderly couldn't work anyway and that Ireland retained a high percentage of their labor force. B is a sound reason as to why the population of Ireland was severely cut but why the wages did not reduce.

(C) Advances in technology increased the efficiency of industry and agriculture, and so allowed maintenance of economic output with less demand for labor.
If technology was so efficient then Ireland probably did not need workers. Thus we don't need to pay workers extra.

(D) The birth rate increased during the decade following the famine, and this compensated for much of the loss of population that was due to the famine.
Babies don't make up the labor force. Plain and simple. Even in the next decade these kids will still be too young to be part of the workforce.

(E) England, which had political control of Ireland, legislated artificially low wages to provide English-owned industry and agriculture in Ireland with cheap labor.
States that England kept wages low. Simple to rule out.
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
Hi experts,
Why not (B)?
The higher percentage of able-bodied workers doesn't increase the actual number of workers.

Please advise
Thanks
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
sleepynut wrote:
Hi experts,
Why not (B)?
The higher percentage of able-bodied workers doesn't increase the actual number of workers.

Please advise
Thanks


My reasoning :

Argument says that during famines work force diminishes that cause increased wages for worker after famine..Ireland is exception.

B --says that in ire land workforce is not decreased as only elderly and infirm ppl (who could not work) are emigrated .--it gives a reason why wages were stable in Ireland as Ireland have adequate supply of workers....

D--Says birth rate increased ...there is nothing about workforce ....
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
D - An increasing birth rate does not directly have an influence on the wage situation, as there is a significant timeframe (probably around two decades) until these newly born children affect the labour market.

All other answer choices provide some form of suitable explanation as to why the wage situation after the potato famine was an exception from the general rule.

Hope this helps.

Best regards,
Chris
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
D is such a simple choice, birth rate means more babies who obviously won't reaching working age until at least another decade, took me 45 seconds, happy to help if needed!
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
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Re: Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of risin [#permalink]
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