Last visit was: 22 May 2025, 12:36 It is currently 22 May 2025, 12:36
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
avatar
iyera211
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Jul 2017
Posts: 7
Own Kudos:
9
 [6]
Given Kudos: 107
Posts: 7
Kudos: 9
 [6]
Kudos
Add Kudos
6
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 101,654
Own Kudos:
726,317
 [1]
Given Kudos: 93,600
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 101,654
Kudos: 726,317
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
BrentGMATPrepNow
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 12 Sep 2015
Last visit: 13 May 2024
Posts: 6,761
Own Kudos:
33,642
 [1]
Given Kudos: 799
Location: Canada
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 6,761
Kudos: 33,642
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Probus
Joined: 10 Apr 2018
Last visit: 22 May 2020
Posts: 181
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 115
Location: United States (NC)
Posts: 181
Kudos: 512
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hi

Well we all understood that series is \(\frac{1}{2}\) , \(\frac{-1}{2^2}\) , \(\frac{1}{2^3}\), \(\frac{-1}{2^4}\), \(\frac{1}{2^5}\) ,\(\frac{-1}{2^6}\),\(\frac{1}{2^7}\) ,\(\frac{-1}{2^8}\) ,\(\frac{1}{2^9}\) ,\(\frac{-1}{2^10}\)

Can i rewrite the series as

{\(\frac{1}{2}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^3}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^5}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^7}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^9}\) } - { \(\frac{1}{2^2}\) + \(\frac{1}{2^4}\) + \(\frac{1}{2^6}\)+ \(\frac{1}{2^8}\) + \(\frac{1}{2^10}\) }

{\(\frac{1}{2}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^3}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^5}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^7}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^9}\) } -\(\frac{1}{2}\) { \(\frac{1}{2}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^3}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^5}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^7}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^9}\) }

Let {\(\frac{1}{2}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^3}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^5}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^7}\) +\(\frac{1}{2^9}\) } =q
then
\(q-\frac{q}{2}\)

\(\frac{q}{2}\)

now q is in GP and we need to find the sum of GP whose first term is \(\frac{1}{2}\) and r is \(\frac{1}{4}\) , n is 5
Either you can use the formula for sum of infinte terms of GP or genereal formula .

Lets try the general formula which says sum of n terms of GP

we have \(\frac{\frac{1}{2} * (1 - \frac{1}{4^5})}{ (1-\frac{1}{4})}\)

\(\frac{\frac{1}{2} * ( \frac{4^5-1}{4^5})}{ (\frac{3}{4})}\)

Can we say \(\frac{4^5-1}{4^5}\) is nearly equal to 1

So this expression \(\frac{\frac{1}{2} * ( \frac{4^5-1}{4^5})}{ (\frac{3}{4})}\) hence simplifies to \(\frac{2}{3}\)

now q= \(\frac{2}{3}\)

we need the value of \(\frac{q}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

So Choice D suits our Answer.

PS: Does this solution look long - Yeah because i tried to explain each step. I am sure we will not being many steps that i wrote down . I did get my solution in 1: 03 min


abhimahna

I guess you missed on signs in this post , lucky you ended getting the right answer.

https://gmatclub.com/forum/kth-term-of- ... l#p1724824
User avatar
unraveled
Joined: 07 Mar 2019
Last visit: 10 Apr 2025
Posts: 2,728
Own Kudos:
2,127
 [1]
Given Kudos: 764
Location: India
WE:Sales (Energy)
Posts: 2,728
Kudos: 2,127
 [1]
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
prathns
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive, the kth term of a certain sequence is given by (-1)^(k+1)*(1/2^k). If T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence then T is

A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

Series has 10 terms where first term \(= \frac{1}{2}\) and 10th term \(= - \frac{1}{2^{10}}\).
Every odd is positive and every even term is negative.

The series becomes
\(\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{32} - \frac{1}{64} + \frac{1}{128} - \frac{1}{256} + \frac{1}{512} - \frac{1}{1024}\)

Separating positive terms and negative terms we have
\(\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{32} - \frac{1}{64} + \frac{1}{128} - \frac{1}{256} + \frac{1}{512} - \frac{1}{1024}\)
\(= \frac{1}{2}(1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} ..) - \frac{1}{4}(1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} ..)\)
\(= (1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} ..) * (\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4})\)
\(= \frac{1}{4} * (1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} ..)\)

And
\(1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} .. > 1.25\)
\(\frac{1}{4} * (1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} ..) > \frac{1}{4} * 1.25\)
\(\frac{1}{4} * (1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{64} ..) > 0.31\)

Checking answers only D is correct since \(\frac{1}{4} < 0.31 < \frac{1}{2}\)

Answer (D).
User avatar
altairahmad
Joined: 27 Mar 2017
Last visit: 29 Jul 2021
Posts: 266
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 406
Location: Saudi Arabia
GMAT 1: 700 Q47 V39
GPA: 3.36
Products:
GMAT 1: 700 Q47 V39
Posts: 266
Kudos: 84
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel

BUT there is shortcut:

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\).

Now, the sum of infinite geometric progression with common ratio \(|r|<1\), is \(sum=\frac{b}{1-r}\), where \(b\) is the first term.

So, if the sequence were infinite then the sum would be: \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1-(-\frac{1}{2})}=\frac{1}{3}\)

This means that no matter how many number (terms) we have their sum will never be more then \(\frac{1}{3}\) (A, B and C are out). Also this means that the sum of our sequence is very close to \(\frac{1}{3}\) and for sure more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) (E out). So the answer is D.

Answer: D.

Bunuel How do we know that the sum of this sequence will be very close to 1/3 ?
User avatar
EMPOWERgmatRichC
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 19 Dec 2014
Last visit: 31 Dec 2023
Posts: 21,791
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 450
Status:GMAT Assassin/Co-Founder
Affiliations: EMPOWERgmat
Location: United States (CA)
GMAT 1: 800 Q51 V49
GRE 1: Q170 V170
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 800 Q51 V49
GRE 1: Q170 V170
Posts: 21,791
Kudos: 12,379
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
altairahmad
Bunuel

BUT there is shortcut:

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\).

Now, the sum of infinite geometric progression with common ratio \(|r|<1\), is \(sum=\frac{b}{1-r}\), where \(b\) is the first term.

So, if the sequence were infinite then the sum would be: \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1-(-\frac{1}{2})}=\frac{1}{3}\)

This means that no matter how many number (terms) we have their sum will never be more then \(\frac{1}{3}\) (A, B and C are out). Also this means that the sum of our sequence is very close to \(\frac{1}{3}\) and for sure more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) (E out). So the answer is D.

Answer: D.

Bunuel How do we know that the sum of this sequence will be very close to 1/3 ?

Hi altairahmad,

Bunuel's explanation included a formula that shows why the sum gets fairly close to 1/3. Looking at the answer choices though, you do NOT actually have to get to that conclusion (since the answers are RANGES, we just need to do enough work to define which "range" the total will be in - and then we can stop working).

By plugging in the first few numbers (1, 2, 3, 4) into the sequence, you can see that a pattern emerges among the terms....

1st term = +1/2
2nd term = -1/4
3rd term = +1/8
4th term = -1/16

The terms follow a positive-negative-positive-negative pattern all the way to the 10th term and each term is the product of the prior term and 1/2. By "pairing up' the terms, another pattern emerges....

1/2 - 1/4 = 1/4

1/8 - 1/16 = 1/16

1/32 - 1/64 = 1/64

Etc.

The "pairs" get progressively smaller (notice how each is the product of the prior term and 1/4). This means that we're "starting with" 1/4 and adding progressively TINIER fractions to it. Since we're just adding 4 fractions (that are getting REALLY SMALL) to 1/4, this means that we're going to end up with a total that's just a LITTLE MORE than 1/4. Looking at the answer choices, there's only one answer that fits:

GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
User avatar
Kinshook
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 03 Jun 2019
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 5,597
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Location: India
GMAT 1: 690 Q50 V34
WE:Engineering (Transportation)
Products:
GMAT 1: 690 Q50 V34
Posts: 5,597
Kudos: 5,025
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
prathns
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\). If T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is

A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

Given: For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\).
Asked: If T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is

\(T = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8 }- \frac{1}{16} + ......- \frac{1}{2^{10}}\)

\(T_{max} = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} + ...... to\ infinity = \frac {\frac{1}{2} }{1+ \frac{1}{2}} =\frac{1}{3} \)

IMO D
User avatar
ScottTargetTestPrep
User avatar
Target Test Prep Representative
Joined: 14 Oct 2015
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 20,812
Own Kudos:
25,879
 [4]
Given Kudos: 292
Status:Founder & CEO
Affiliations: Target Test Prep
Location: United States (CA)
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 20,812
Kudos: 25,879
 [4]
3
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
prathns
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\). If T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is

A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

Solution:
We are given that for every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive, the kth term of a certain sequence is given by (-1)^(k+1) x (1/2^k). We must determine the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence. Before calculating the sum, we should recognize that the answer choices are provided as ranges of values, rather than as exact values. Thus, we might not need to calculate the total of the 10 terms to determine an answer. Perhaps we can uncover a pattern to help us find the answer. Let’s start by listing the first four terms.
k = 1:
(-1)^(1+1) x (1/2^1)
(-1)^2 x 1/2
1 x 1/2 = 1/2
k = 2:
(-1)^(2+1) x (1/2^2)
(-1)^3 x 1/4
-1 x 1/4 = -1/4
k = 3:
(-1)^(3+1) x (1/2^3)
(-1)^4 x 1/8
1 x 1/8 = 1/8
k = 4:
(-1)^(4+1) x (1/2^4)
(-1)^5 x 1/16
-1 x 1/16 = -1/16
Recall that we are trying to estimate the value of T = 1/2 + (-1/4) + 1/8 + (-1/16) + … until we have 10 terms. In other words, T = 1/2 – 1/4 + 1/8 – 1/16 + … until there are 10 terms.
We should notice that the absolute values of the terms are getting smaller:
|1/2|>|-1/4|>|1/8|>|-1/16|.
Notice that starting from the first term of 1/2, we are subtracting something less than 1/2 (notice that 1/4 < 1/2) but then adding back something even less (notice 1/8 < 1/4), and the process continues. Thus, because ½ and -1/4 are the largest term and the smallest term, respectively, in our set, the sum will never fall below ¼ or exceed ½.
Thus, we conclude that T is greater than 1/4 but less than 1/2.

Answer: D
User avatar
sujoykrdatta
Joined: 26 Jun 2014
Last visit: 18 May 2025
Posts: 538
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 13
Status:Mentor & Coach | GMAT Q51 | CAT 99.98
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 538
Kudos: 999
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
prathns
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\). If T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is

A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4


Let us first look at the terms by substituting k = 1, 2, 3, 4 ... :
1/2, -1/4, 1/8, -1/16 ...

Observe that the options are in ranges and so, we need not necessarily calculate the exact value of this summation. Also, both 1/2 and 1/4 are there in the options - the first 2 terms of the series above

Adding the first 2 terms, we get 1/2 - 1/4 = 1/4
Thereafter, the sum of every pair is a positive quantity, for example, 1/8 - 1/16 > 0 etc.
Thus, the sum is greater than 1/4

Again, leaving out the first tern, 1/2, if we pair, each pair would be negative (for example: -1/4 + 1/8 < 0) and the 10th term would be left over, which also is negative.
Thus, the sum is less than 1/2

Answer D
User avatar
DanTheGMATMan
Joined: 02 Oct 2015
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 332
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 9
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 332
Kudos: 154
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
­Track the back and forth along a number line and it's easy to see where it'll land:

User avatar
lnyngayan
Joined: 09 Mar 2023
Last visit: 13 Oct 2024
Posts: 29
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 240
Posts: 29
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\) if T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is
A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

First of all we see that there is set of 10 numbers and every even term is negative.

Second it's not hard to get this numbers: \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... enough for calculations, we see pattern now.

And now the main part: adding them up is quite a job, after calculations you'll get \(\frac{341}{1024}\). You can add them up by pairs but it's also time consuming. Once we've done it we can conclude that it's more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) and less than \(\frac{1}{2}\), so answer is D.

BUT there is shortcut:

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\).

Now, the sum of infinite geometric progression with common ratio \(|r|<1\), is \(sum=\frac{b}{1-r}\), where \(b\) is the first term.

So, if the sequence were infinite then the sum would be: \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1-(-\frac{1}{2})}=\frac{1}{3}\)

This means that no matter how many number (terms) we have their sum will never be more then \(\frac{1}{3}\) (A, B and C are out). Also this means that the sum of our sequence is very close to \(\frac{1}{3}\) and for sure more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) (E out). So the answer is D.

Answer: D.
­
For this sequence,

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

How to determine the common ratio is -1/2?
Thanks!
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 101,654
Own Kudos:
726,317
 [1]
Given Kudos: 93,600
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 101,654
Kudos: 726,317
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
lnyngayan
Bunuel
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\) if T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is
A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

First of all we see that there is set of 10 numbers and every even term is negative.

Second it's not hard to get this numbers: \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... enough for calculations, we see pattern now.

And now the main part: adding them up is quite a job, after calculations you'll get \(\frac{341}{1024}\). You can add them up by pairs but it's also time consuming. Once we've done it we can conclude that it's more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) and less than \(\frac{1}{2}\), so answer is D.

BUT there is shortcut:

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\).

Now, the sum of infinite geometric progression with common ratio \(|r|<1\), is \(sum=\frac{b}{1-r}\), where \(b\) is the first term.

So, if the sequence were infinite then the sum would be: \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1-(-\frac{1}{2})}=\frac{1}{3}\)

This means that no matter how many number (terms) we have their sum will never be more then \(\frac{1}{3}\) (A, B and C are out). Also this means that the sum of our sequence is very close to \(\frac{1}{3}\) and for sure more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) (E out). So the answer is D.

Answer: D.
­
For this sequence,

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

How to determine the common ratio is -1/2?
Thanks!
­
To find the common ratio, you divide a term by its preceding term. For this sequence, you can divide the second term by the first term:

\(-\frac{1}{4} \div \frac{1}{2} = -\frac{1}{2}\).

This same ratio applies when dividing any term by the previous one, confirming that the common ratio is \(-\frac{1}{2}\).­
User avatar
pierjoejoe
Joined: 30 Jul 2024
Last visit: 30 Jan 2025
Posts: 130
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 425
Location: Italy
Concentration: Accounting, Finance
GMAT Focus 1: 645 Q84 V84 DI78
GPA: 4
WE:Research (Technology)
GMAT Focus 1: 645 Q84 V84 DI78
Posts: 130
Kudos: 48
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
i found a way to solve these kind of problems in a quick and dirty way. it worked in many of these kinds of problems, but i'd like to know if it can be really deployed.

in this case we know that odd powers are positive, and even powers are negative

1 --> 1/2
2 --> -1/4
3 --> 1/8
4 --> -1/16


we have to subtract the 2 "parts" of the sequence
first part (odd powers) = 1/2 + 1/8 + 1/32
second part (even powers) = 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/64

we know for sure the first part is between 0.5 and 1, because we are adding to 0.5 some smaller values, the terms are smaller and smaller, and we have only 5 of them
we know for sure the second part is between 0.25 and 0.5, because we are adding to 0.25 some smaller values, the terms are smaller and smaller, and we have only 5 of them


thus we know that:
first part min = 0.5
first part max = 1

second part min = 0.25
second part max = 0.5

finally:
min value for the difference = 0.5-0.25 = 0.25
max value for the difference = 1-0.5 = 0.5

Bunuel KarishmaB IanStewart
can you check if it can be a valid line of reasoning?
User avatar
KarishmaB
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 15,987
Own Kudos:
73,243
 [1]
Given Kudos: 470
Location: Pune, India
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 15,987
Kudos: 73,243
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
pierjoejoe
i found a way to solve these kind of problems in a quick and dirty way. it worked in many of these kinds of problems, but i'd like to know if it can be really deployed.

in this case we know that odd powers are positive, and even powers are negative

1 --> 1/2
2 --> -1/4
3 --> 1/8
4 --> -1/16


we have to subtract the 2 "parts" of the sequence
first part (odd powers) = 1/2 + 1/8 + 1/32
second part (even powers) = 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/64

we know for sure the first part is between 0.5 and 1, because we are adding to 0.5 some smaller values, the terms are smaller and smaller, and we have only 5 of them
we know for sure the second part is between 0.25 and 0.5, because we are adding to 0.25 some smaller values, the terms are smaller and smaller, and we have only 5 of them


thus we know that:
first part min = 0.5
first part max = 1

second part min = 0.25
second part max = 0.5

finally:
min value for the difference = 0.5-0.25 = 0.25
max value for the difference = 1-0.5 = 0.5

Bunuel KarishmaB IanStewart
can you check if it can be a valid line of reasoning?

Yes, it makes sense. I know that you don't actually mean min and max values, you mean lying somewhere between 0.5 and 1.


Another Method to consider:


1/2 -1/4 + 1/8 - 1/16 + 1/32 ...

= (1/2 -1/4) + (1/8 - 1/16) + 1/32 ...

= 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/64 + 1/256 + 1/1024

This is greater than 1/4 but to be 1/2, the last 4 terms should add up to 1/4 too.

1/16 + 1/64 + 1/256 + 1/1024

For them to add up to 1/4, each term should be 1/16 because

1/4 = 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16

But only one term is 1/16. Rest all are less than 1/16. Hence the total sum is certainly less than 1/2

Answer (D)
User avatar
vaibhavkataria97
Joined: 11 Mar 2020
Last visit: 31 Mar 2025
Posts: 4
Given Kudos: 70
Posts: 4
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Here's how I did it -

Step 1: Series of 10 terms comes out to be--> 1/2 - (1/2)^2 + (1/2)^3 - (1/2)^4 ............... + (1/2)^9 - (1/2)^10
Step 2: Recognize the pattern that sum of every 2 terms is starting with first one is the 2nd term ex: 1/2 - (1/2)^2 = (1/2)^2. Similarly (1/2)^3 - (1/2)^4 = (1/2)^4
Therefore the series can be simplified as (1/2)^2 + (1/2)^4 + (1/2)^6 + (1/2)^8 + (1/2)^10

Step 3: 0.25 + 0.06 + 0.01 + overestimating remaining terms to be 0.01 as well
Therefore we have: 0.25 + 0.06 + 0.01 + 0.01*3 (over-estimated)
= 0.25+ 0.1
This is more than 1/4 and less than 1/2

so D
User avatar
GGGMAT2
Joined: 26 Oct 2024
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 70
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 153
Posts: 70
Kudos: 15
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel

If we just use the Short cut here to solve, we ascertain that the SUM is < 1/3, but how are we sure that it is more than 1/4?

Bunuel
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\) if T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is
A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

First of all we see that there is set of 10 numbers and every even term is negative.

Second it's not hard to get this numbers: \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... enough for calculations, we see pattern now.

And now the main part: adding them up is quite a job, after calculations you'll get \(\frac{341}{1024}\). You can add them up by pairs but it's also time consuming. Once we've done it we can conclude that it's more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) and less than \(\frac{1}{2}\), so answer is D.

BUT there is shortcut:

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\).

Now, the sum of infinite geometric progression with common ratio \(|r|<1\), is \(sum=\frac{b}{1-r}\), where \(b\) is the first term.

So, if the sequence were infinite then the sum would be: \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1-(-\frac{1}{2})}=\frac{1}{3}\)

This means that no matter how many number (terms) we have their sum will never be more then \(\frac{1}{3}\) (A, B and C are out). Also this means that the sum of our sequence is very close to \(\frac{1}{3}\) and for sure more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) (E out). So the answer is D.

Answer: D.
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 22 May 2025
Posts: 101,654
Own Kudos:
726,317
 [1]
Given Kudos: 93,600
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 101,654
Kudos: 726,317
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
GGGMAT2
Bunuel

If we just use the Short cut here to solve, we ascertain that the SUM is < 1/3, but how are we sure that it is more than 1/4?

Bunuel
For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive the "k"th term of a certain sequence is given by \((-1)^{(k+1)}*(\frac{1}{2^k})\) if T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is
A. Greater than 2
B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 1/2 and 1
D. Between 1/4 and 1/2
E. Less than 1/4

First of all we see that there is set of 10 numbers and every even term is negative.

Second it's not hard to get this numbers: \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... enough for calculations, we see pattern now.

And now the main part: adding them up is quite a job, after calculations you'll get \(\frac{341}{1024}\). You can add them up by pairs but it's also time consuming. Once we've done it we can conclude that it's more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) and less than \(\frac{1}{2}\), so answer is D.

BUT there is shortcut:

Sequence \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(-\frac{1}{16}\), \(\frac{1}{32}\)... represents geometric progression with first term \(\frac{1}{2}\) and the common ratio of \(-\frac{1}{2}\).

Now, the sum of infinite geometric progression with common ratio \(|r|<1\), is \(sum=\frac{b}{1-r}\), where \(b\) is the first term.

So, if the sequence were infinite then the sum would be: \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1-(-\frac{1}{2})}=\frac{1}{3}\)

This means that no matter how many number (terms) we have their sum will never be more then \(\frac{1}{3}\) (A, B and C are out). Also this means that the sum of our sequence is very close to \(\frac{1}{3}\) and for sure more than \(\frac{1}{4}\) (E out). So the answer is D.

Answer: D.

The sum is very slightly less than 1/3, but since 1/3 itself is much greater than 1/4, the sum is still clearly more than 1/4.
   1   2   3 
Moderators:
Math Expert
101654 posts
PS Forum Moderator
585 posts