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Re: S96-16 [#permalink]
This is a great question, however, I think it allows for all values of n>1. I do not think we can use the value n=1.

So with the way the question is worded, I do not think we can use x@1=x

The operation x@n for all positive integers n greater than 1.

If this is changed to n greater than 0, it would be okay. Bunuel , what are your thoughts?
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Re S96-16 [#permalink]
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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Re: S96-16 [#permalink]
The question is great.

Note: The question tells us that the operation is defined in a manner for the case: n greater than 1. But for case: n=1, the operation results x.
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S96-16 [#permalink]
There are two possibilities for SO that x@1 = x, either operator is a multiplication or exponential.

I just calculated both the possibilities for all the offered options.

If tried with Multiplication,

(3@2)@2 - 12
3@(1@3) - 9
(2@3)@2 - 12
2@(2@3) - 12
(2@2)@3 - 12

So this is unsatisfactory, the next try-out is with the exponential operator:

(3@2)@2 - 9^2 - 81
3@(1@3) - 3^3 - 27
(2@3)@2 - 8^2 - 64
2@(2@3) - 2^8 - 256
(2@2)@3 - 12 - 64

So, it is clear that Option D is the right option. I tried this method and got the right answer in under a minute. This was late-stage question when I faced and really the official answer felt complicated for me.
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Re: S96-16 [#permalink]
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

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Re: S96-16 [#permalink]
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