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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have

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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   22 Aug 2016, 22:33
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have, enough money put away to retire comfortably.

A) or
B) or are
C) nor
D) nor are not
E) nor are they

I am confused with the options as more than 1 choice look fine to me; experts please pitch in.
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   23 Aug 2016, 02:55
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Temurkhon wrote:
considered that "nor" can be used only in "neither....nor" construction.

Experts, please comment


I went ahead and Googled the concept of using nor without neither.

The following quote from grammar girl website clears the construction required for this:


“Nor” doesn’t necessarily have to appear in a sentence with the word “neither.” “Nor” can start a sentence. For example, if you’ve just mentioned that you don’t usually wake up at 6 a.m. and you want to continue being negative, you can start another sentence with “nor”: “Nor do I like to wake up at 5 a.m.” Another option is to combine the two negative ideas into one sentence and then start the second part with “nor”: “I don’t usually wake up at 6 a.m., nor do I like to wake up at 5 a.m.”

So it is the construction that's considered correct with the usage of nor in a sentence as is the case in this question. One just needs to be familiar with this I guess.
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 08:56
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Sirakri wrote:
sayantanc2k wrote:
No, the requirement is because of parallelism. For any parallel structure this concept is true. For any parallel structure, omission is allowed in the second element if the omitted part already occurs in the first element. In this case the verb "are" does not occur in the first element; hence it cannot be omitted.


Hi sayantanc2k,

Thanks for your reply.

I was asking about "they" in the second part. Is it mandatory that we use Americans (they) again?

BTW, just wanted to tell you that I'm a great fan of yours :D


Thank you.

"They" in the second element is not mandatory from parallelism aspect. However as you have correctly stated, "they" is required because comma + conjunction adds two independent clauses. The following would also be correct:

The study concludes that many Americans do not have nor ARE likely to have enough money put away to retire comfortably. (Two verbs are joined by a conjunction, hence no comma).
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   22 Aug 2016, 23:20
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Here is my take on this:

1. The sentence states two negatives => eliminate or. (A,B)
2. Parallelism :
c) nor : usage not parallel : Americans have neither money nor stocks would have been correct.
d) nor are not: incorrect meaning. Double negative. Either nor or not will suffice.
e) nor are they: Correct parallel Structure. 'Americans do not have' and 'nor are they likely to have' are parallel. Hence the answer.
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   02 Jan 2017, 23:27
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have, enough money put away to retire comfortably.

A) or
B) or are
C) nor
D) nor are not
E) nor are they

The correct idiom is Do not X... Nor Y

That narrows the answers down to C, D, and E

C --> does not have a pronoun that refers to many Americans
D --> not is redundant
E --> Perfect! No redundancy and fixes the problem of answer C
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 08:56
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I'll chime in if no one minds.

Using "Americans" after the comma is redundant and overly wordy (for a lack of a better term). As long as the pronoun is unambiguous, which it is in the sentence, you don't need to repeat the noun.


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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   23 Aug 2016, 00:33
I am struggling to understand why "Americans do not have nor like to have" is not parallel.

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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   23 Aug 2016, 01:43
considered that "nor" can be used only in "neither....nor" construction.

Experts, please comment
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   23 Aug 2016, 03:03
vabhs192003 wrote:
Temurkhon wrote:
considered that "nor" can be used only in "neither....nor" construction.

Experts, please comment


I went ahead and Googled the concept of using nor without neither.

The following quote from grammar girl website clears the construction required for this:


“Nor” doesn’t necessarily have to appear in a sentence with the word “neither.” “Nor” can start a sentence. For example, if you’ve just mentioned that you don’t usually wake up at 6 a.m. and you want to continue being negative, you can start another sentence with “nor”: “Nor do I like to wake up at 5 a.m.” Another option is to combine the two negative ideas into one sentence and then start the second part with “nor”: “I don’t usually wake up at 6 a.m., nor do I like to wake up at 5 a.m.”

So it is the construction that's considered correct with the usage of nor in a sentence as is the case in this question. One just needs to be familiar with this I guess.


thanks, seems I have found the same source. Good luck
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   02 Jan 2017, 09:51
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likhitkakollu wrote:
Can some one explain why C is wrong. Struck between C and E


It is alright to omit the repeated parts (including verbs) from the second element of a parallel structure. However if the verb is not there in the first element of the structure, it cannot be omitted. Here the structure before omission is:

X NOR Y - X = Americans do not have, Y = they are likely
...Americans do not have nor they are likely...

Note that the verbs are different in X AND Y ("have" in X and "are" in Y). Therefore the verb cannot be omitted from Y. Hence E is better than C.
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 03:03
sayantanc2k wrote:
likhitkakollu wrote:
Can some one explain why C is wrong. Struck between C and E


It is alright to omit the repeated parts (including verbs) from the second element of a parallel structure. However if the verb is not there in the first element of the structure, it cannot be omitted. Here the structure before omission is:

X NOR Y - X = Americans do not have, Y = they are likely
...Americans do not have nor they are likely...

Note that the verbs are different in X AND Y ("have" in X and "are" in Y). Therefore the verb cannot be omitted from Y. Hence E is better than C.

Hi sayantanc2k,

Can we ignore they in the second part?
X NOR Y - X = do not have, Y = are likely

Okay, got it.. because of fanboys + COMMA, we gotta use the subject again in new IC. Right?
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 07:33
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Sirakri wrote:
sayantanc2k wrote:
likhitkakollu wrote:
Can some one explain why C is wrong. Struck between C and E


It is alright to omit the repeated parts (including verbs) from the second element of a parallel structure. However if the verb is not there in the first element of the structure, it cannot be omitted. Here the structure before omission is:

X NOR Y - X = Americans do not have, Y = they are likely
...Americans do not have nor they are likely...

Note that the verbs are different in X AND Y ("have" in X and "are" in Y). Therefore the verb cannot be omitted from Y. Hence E is better than C.

Hi sayantanc2k,

Can we ignore they in the second part?
X NOR Y - X = do not have, Y = are likely

Okay, got it.. because of fanboys + COMMA, we gotta use the subject again in new IC. Right?


No, the requirement is because of parallelism. For any parallel structure this concept is true. For any parallel structure, omission is allowed in the second element if the omitted part already occurs in the first element. In this case the verb "are" does not occur in the first element; hence it cannot be omitted.
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 08:25
sayantanc2k wrote:
No, the requirement is because of parallelism. For any parallel structure this concept is true. For any parallel structure, omission is allowed in the second element if the omitted part already occurs in the first element. In this case the verb "are" does not occur in the first element; hence it cannot be omitted.


Hi sayantanc2k,

Thanks for your reply.

I was asking about "they" in the second part. Is it mandatory that we use Americans (they) again?

BTW, just wanted to tell you that I'm a great fan of yours :D
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Re: The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 09:42
StoicBread wrote:
I'll chime in if no one minds.

Using "Americans" after the comma is redundant and overly wordy (for a lack of a better term). As long as the pronoun is unambiguous, which it is in the sentence, you don't need to repeat the noun.


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Hi StoicBread,

Thanks for your input. This is the beauty of discussion boards, loads of help, wherever necessary :)
I was asking about the usage of "they" (which of course refers to the word Amercians.)

sayantanc2k wrote:

Thank you.

"They" in the second element is not mandatory from parallelism aspect. However as you have correctly stated, "they" is required because comma + conjunction adds two independent clauses. The following would also be correct:

The study concludes that many Americans do not have nor ARE likely to have enough money put away to retire comfortably. (Two verbs are joined by a conjunction, hence no comma).


Thanks for clarifying. Does that mean we should always use the necessary pronoun with the last item of the parallel list (of actions?)? Are there any exceptions?
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   03 Jan 2017, 10:34
Yes, that is what I was addressing. The pronoun "they" is appropriate because it unambiguously references Americans. If it did not, repeating the noun (Americans) would be correct. It seems as though SC comes down to ensuring pronouns are clear, modifiers correct, and sentence meaning opaque. There is a bit more to it, but once I learned to check for those three thing, and also parallelism, my hit rate went way up.

And yes! GMATClub is an amazing resource.


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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink] New post   09 Oct 2020, 01:25
I don't agree with OA. "Not.... nor" is not a right construct. Expert kindly enlighten...
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The study concludes that many Americans do not have, or likely to have [#permalink]
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