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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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Bunuel wrote:
Official Solution:

\(C^4_9\) - total # of ways to choose 4 cups out of 9.


Hi Bunuel,

I'm having trouble understanding the format you are using in your explanation. In the combinatorics thread in your signature, it says:

A combination is an unordered collection of k objects taken from a set of n distinct objects. The number of ways how we can choose k objects out of n distinct objects is denoted as: \(C^n_k\)

So in your explanation, this would mean choosing 9 objects out of only 4 distinct objects. How is this possible? We would be getting a fraction here when we should be getting whole numbers.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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OutOfTheHills wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
Official Solution:

\(C^4_9\) - total # of ways to choose 4 cups out of 9.


Hi Bunuel,

I'm having trouble understanding the format you are using in your explanation. In the combinatorics thread in your signature, it says:

A combination is an unordered collection of k objects taken from a set of n distinct objects. The number of ways how we can choose k objects out of n distinct objects is denoted as: \(C^n_k\)

So in your explanation, this would mean choosing 9 objects out of only 4 distinct objects. How is this possible? We would be getting a fraction here when we should be getting whole numbers.


\(C^4_9\), \(C^9_4\), 9C4 are the same: choosing 4 out of 9. How can we choose 9 out of 4? Those are just different ways of writing the same.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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For other solutions check long and good discussion HERE. Hope it helps.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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I solved it in a way that I think is more direct:
I get the probability that each cup is not a specific type of tea (type A):
1st cup, Probability it is not type A = 6/9
2nd cup, Probability it is not type A = 5/8, since we only have 8 cups left, and 3 of them are type A
3rd cup, Probability it is not type A = 4/7
4th cup, Probability it is not type A = 3/6
We do the same for types B and C (multiply by 3)
So : 6/9 * 5/8 * 4/7 * 3/6 * 3 = 5/14

Originally posted by cledgard on 12 Jan 2015, 08:52.
Last edited by cledgard on 02 Aug 2020, 06:09, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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At a blind taste competition a contestant is offered 3 cups of each of the 3 samples of tea in a random arrangement of 9 marked cups. If each contestant tastes 4 different cups of tea, what is the probability that a contestant does not taste all of the samples?

So, we have :
Sample of tea A : the cups are A1, A2, and A3
Sample of tea B : the cups are B1, B2, and B3
Sample of tea C : the cups are C1, C2, and C3

So the contestant is offered : 4 random cups from the set {A1, A2, A3, B1, B2, B3, C1, C2, C3}

We want to calculate the probability to not choose the 3 samples with 4 cups ; for instance A1A2A3B2, or B13BC1C2, or C2A1A2A3, or A1A2B2B3, etc.
->So the contestant could test ONLY 2 of the 3 samples

Proba = \(\frac{(Number.of.ways.to.choose.4.cups.from.2.samples)}{(Number.total.of.ways.to.choose.4.cups.from.3.samples)}\)


1/ Number of ways to choose 4 cups from 2 samples :

Stage 1 : Choose 2 samples from the 3 = \(\frac{3*2}{2}\) = 3
We obtain : A, A, A, B, B, B for example

Stage 2 : Choose 4 from the 6 cups selected = \(\frac{6*5*4*3}{4*3*2}\) = 15

Counting Principle : 3*15 ways

2/ Number of ways to choose 4 cups from 3 samples = from 9 cups :

\(\frac{9*8*7*6}{4*3*2}\) = 9*7*2


So, proba = \(\frac{3*15}{9*7*2}\) = \(\frac{5}{14}\)
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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My "layman" approach:


At a blind taste competition a contestant is offered 3 cups of each of the 3 samples of tea in a random arrangement of 9 marked cups. If each contestant tastes 4 different cups of tea, what is the probability that a contestant does not taste all of the samples?

Simply calculating \(\frac{#possible.cases}{#tot. cases}\) we can find the solution quite fast.

First possible cases: \(9*5*4*3\)
We have 9 different ways in which we can taste the first cup of tea, after this first one we we do 9-1 (last draw) -3 one family of teas, so the following draws are 5, 4 and 3.

Total cases: \(9*8*7*6\)
Nothing surprising here.

\(\frac{(9*5*4*3)}{(9*8*7*6)}\) = \(\frac{5}{28}\) we still have to multiply * 2 because there are 2 ways in which the 2nd the 3rd cup can be drawn -> AB and BA.

So \(\frac{5}{28} * 2\) = \(\frac{5}{14}\)
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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I think this is a high-quality question.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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IMO this is a great question.

Here is my approach:

Given: 3 Samples of tea and for each sample we have 3 cups.

Samples of tea : Cups of tea
A : cup1, cup2, cup3
B : cup4, cup5, cup6
C : cup7, cup8, cup9

Contestant tastes 4 different cups of tea ==> It means he will taste any 4 cups from the 9 cups.

We are asked to find the probability that "a contestant does not taste all of the samples".

"a contestant does not taste all of the samples"--> means contestant have to taste any 2 samples out of the 3 (A,B,C).

Contestant can taste samples as i) A or B ii) B or C iii) A or C

How many ways contestant can does so => Select 4 cups out of 6 cups (\(6C4\)) ==> 15 ways
It can be done in 3 ways (AB, BC, or AC)

==> Total number of ways a contestant does not taste all of the samples = 3 * 15 = 45

Total ways to select 4 cups out of 9 cups = \(9C4\) = 126

Proability = 45/126 = 5/14
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Here is a simple solution:
P(does not taste all samples) = 1 - P(does taste all samples)
P(does taste all samples) means he tastes A, B, C, and 1 more (e.g. ABCA, ABCB, ABCC)
Find the probability of one happening
P(ABCA) = 3/9 * 3/8 * 3/7 * 2/6 = 1/56
Then multiply by the # of ways to arrange each scenario: 4!/2! = 12 (mississippi rule)
Then multiply by 3 to account for all three scenarios
(1/56)*(12)*(3) = 9/14
Then subtract from 1 to get the answer:
1-(9/14) = 5/14

Answer B
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lets consider the case of the contestant tasting all the samples ;
Cases : AABC ,ABBC , ABCC
For each case the selection is 3c2x3c1x3c1 : so, total is 3X3c2x3c1x3c1
Now the probability of contestant to taste all the three samples is (3X3c2x3c1x3c1)/(9c4) = 9/14
the probability that a contestant does not taste all of the samples : 1-9/14 = 5/14.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.

Posted from my mobile device
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
DensetsuNo wrote:

My "layman" approach:


At a blind taste competition a contestant is offered 3 cups of each of the 3 samples of tea in a random arrangement of 9 marked cups. If each contestant tastes 4 different cups of tea, what is the probability that a contestant does not taste all of the samples?

Simply calculating \(\frac{#possible.cases}{#tot. cases}\) we can find the solution quite fast.

First possible cases: \(9*5*4*3\)
We have 9 different ways in which we can taste the first cup of tea, after this first one we we do 9-1 (last draw) -3 one family of teas, so the following draws are 5, 4 and 3.

Total cases: \(9*8*7*6\)
Nothing surprising here.

\(\frac{(9*5*4*3)}{(9*8*7*6)}\) = \(\frac{5}{28}\) we still have to multiply * 2 because there are 2 ways in which the 2nd the 3rd cup can be drawn -> AB and BA.

So \(\frac{5}{28} * 2\) = \(\frac{5}{14}\)


Hi I like your approach - can you explain why you multiply by 2 at the end?
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
Another way to solve this question is:

Let the samples be A,B,C. Thus, the cups are

AAA----BBB----CCC

Probability of not tasting all 3 = 1 - (Probability of tasting 3)

Probability of tasting 3:

3 Samples can be tasted in 3 ways.

1) Getting 2 cups of A..... ABCA, AABC & so on.
2) Getting 2 cups of B...... ABCB, ABBC & so on.
3) Getting 2 cups of C...... ABCC, ACBC & so on.

1) Getting 2 cups of A.

Probability of getting 2 cups of A = P(A)*P(B)*P(C)*P(A) * Number of ways ABCA can be arranged

Number of ways ABCA can be arranged = \(\frac{4!}{2!}\)......................(i.e. ABCA, AABC & so on)

P(A)*P(B)*P(C)*P(A) = \(\frac{3}{9}*\frac{3}{8}*\frac{3}{7}*\frac{2}{6}\)

Probability of getting 2 cups of A =\(\frac{3}{9}*\frac{3}{8}*\frac{3}{7}*\frac{2}{6}*\frac{4!}{2!}\)\(=\frac{3}{14}\)


P(of getting 2 cups of B) = P(of getting 2 cups of C) = P(of getting 2 cups of A) =\(\frac{ 3}{14}\)

(Probability of tasting 3 Samples) = P(of getting 2 cups of A) + P(of getting 2 cups of B) + P(of getting 2 cups of C)
=\(3*\frac{3}{14\\
}\)
=\(\frac{9}{14}\)

Probability of not tasting all 3 = 1 - (Probability of tasting 3)
\(= 1 -\frac{9}{14}\)

\(=\frac{5}{14}\\
\)

Ans B
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
firsttimenoob wrote:
DensetsuNo wrote:

My "layman" approach:


At a blind taste competition a contestant is offered 3 cups of each of the 3 samples of tea in a random arrangement of 9 marked cups. If each contestant tastes 4 different cups of tea, what is the probability that a contestant does not taste all of the samples?

Simply calculating \(\frac{#possible.cases}{#tot. cases}\) we can find the solution quite fast.

First possible cases: \(9*5*4*3\)
We have 9 different ways in which we can taste the first cup of tea, after this first one we we do 9-1 (last draw) -3 one family of teas, so the following draws are 5, 4 and 3.

Total cases: \(9*8*7*6\)
Nothing surprising here.

\(\frac{(9*5*4*3)}{(9*8*7*6)}\) = \(\frac{5}{28}\) we still have to multiply * 2 because there are 2 ways in which the 2nd the 3rd cup can be drawn -> AB and BA.

So \(\frac{5}{28} * 2\) = \(\frac{5}{14}\)


Hi I like your approach - can you explain why you multiply by 2 at the end?

Dear IanStewart,

Quick question.
This approach is also wrong as we discussed here https://gmatclub.com/forum/at-a-blind-t ... l#p2547028, right?
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
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varotkorn wrote:
firsttimenoob wrote:
DensetsuNo wrote:

My "layman" approach:


At a blind taste competition a contestant is offered 3 cups of each of the 3 samples of tea in a random arrangement of 9 marked cups. If each contestant tastes 4 different cups of tea, what is the probability that a contestant does not taste all of the samples?

Simply calculating \(\frac{#possible.cases}{#tot. cases}\) we can find the solution quite fast.

First possible cases: \(9*5*4*3\)
We have 9 different ways in which we can taste the first cup of tea, after this first one we we do 9-1 (last draw) -3 one family of teas, so the following draws are 5, 4 and 3.

Total cases: \(9*8*7*6\)
Nothing surprising here.

\(\frac{(9*5*4*3)}{(9*8*7*6)}\) = \(\frac{5}{28}\) we still have to multiply * 2 because there are 2 ways in which the 2nd the 3rd cup can be drawn -> AB and BA.

So \(\frac{5}{28} * 2\) = \(\frac{5}{14}\)


Hi I like your approach - can you explain why you multiply by 2 at the end?

Dear IanStewart,

Quick question.
This approach is also wrong as we discussed here https://gmatclub.com/forum/at-a-blind-t ... l#p2547028, right?


As with that other solution, maybe this is right and I just don't understand what the person is doing, but I don't even see how they've arrived at (9)(5)(4)(3). You do not have 5 choices after picking the first cup of tea (you have 8 if you can repeat the first tea type you picked and 6 if you can't).

It's true though that in probability questions with small numbers, if you use an incorrect method, you might just by luck get the right answer if you multiply or divide by 2 or 3 (because we do those things all the time in small-number probability calculations), and as far as I can tell, that's what happens here.
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Re: D01-38 [#permalink]
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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