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rohanchowdhary
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Bunuel
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Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
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P0 = 81 (price of the chip at 0 moment)
P1 = 1/3 * P0 (67% price decrease means new price = 1/3 of the old price)
P(k+1) = P0 * (1/3)^k
81 * (1/3) ^ k = 1 leads to (1/3)^k = 1/81 = (1/3)^4 so k = 4
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Bunuel is using something I call a Growth Table approach. So, rather than trying to formulate the correct answer at once, we can just take the time to list successive values until we get to where we need to be.

For more on this, check out our free video - https://www.gmatprepnow.com/module/gmat- ... /video/929
Afterwards, you can practice with this question - https://www.gmatprepnow.com/module/gmat- ... /video/930

Cheers,
Brent
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we need to find membership in Geometric progression

1 - searched number
81 - first term
1/3 - r (common ratio)

1=81*1/3^(n-1)
1/3^(n-1)=1/81

n-1=4 meaning that 1 will come after 4th year
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Temurkhon
we need to find membership in Geometric progression

1 - searched number
81 - first term
1/3 - r (common ratio)

1=81*1/3^(n-1)
1/3^(n-1)=1/81

n-1=4 meaning that 1 will come after 4th year

In the method above it takes 5 years for the price to be $1 ,

whereas according to expert(s) in 4th year the price will be $1.

Why is there a mismatch between the G.P way and the Growth table approach , can anybody clear the confusion here?
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