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Bunuel
Admission to a certain ballet school is very competitive. 3/8 of all applicants are male. 3/4 of all applicants are rejected in the first round including 2/3 of all male applicants. What fraction of applicants remaining after the first round are male?

A. 1/32

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 3/4

E. 8/9
IMO C!
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100mitra
Correct Option C

Let the applicants = 80.
\(\frac{3}{8}\) ratio are male = 30.

\(\frac{3}{4}\) applicants are rejected = \(\frac{3}{4}\) * 80 = 60.

\(\frac{2}{3}\) of all of the male applicants rejected out of 60 = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)) * 60 = 40.

\(\frac{Total-Number-of-male-application-rejected }{ The-total-number-applicants}\) = \(\frac{40}{80}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = The answer is (C).

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Could you please explain, if there are in total 30 male applicants out of 80 supposed applicants then how come we have 40 male applicants as rejected out of 80 of total applicants??
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ankvats
100mitra
Correct Option C

Let the applicants = 80.
\(\frac{3}{8}\) ratio are male = 30.

\(\frac{3}{4}\) applicants are rejected = \(\frac{3}{4}\) * 80 = 60.

\(\frac{2}{3}\) of all of the male applicants rejected out of 60 = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)) * 60 = 40.

\(\frac{Total-Number-of-male-application-rejected }{ The-total-number-applicants}\) = \(\frac{40}{80}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = The answer is (C).

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Could you please explain, if there are in total 30 male applicants out of 80 supposed applicants then how come we have 40 male applicants as rejected out of 80 of total applicants??
I think he misread the question. Obviously, your question is logical.
The thing is that the number of male applicants rejected is 30*2/3 = 20
So, male passed (these ones are after the first round) 30-20 = 10
The number of males and females passed 1st round was 20. (80-80*3/4)
Then males are 10/20 = 1/2
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Thank you ankvats and ShahadatHJ
A learning for me too in this.

ShahadatHJ
ankvats
100mitra
Correct Option C

Let the applicants = 80.
\(\frac{3}{8}\) ratio are male = 30.

\(\frac{3}{4}\) applicants are rejected = \(\frac{3}{4}\) * 80 = 60.

\(\frac{2}{3}\) of all of the male applicants rejected out of 60 = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)) * 60 = 40.

\(\frac{Total-Number-of-male-application-rejected }{ The-total-number-applicants}\) = \(\frac{40}{80}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = The answer is (C).

Posted from my mobile device


Could you please explain, if there are in total 30 male applicants out of 80 supposed applicants then how come we have 40 male applicants as rejected out of 80 of total applicants??
I think he misread the question. Obviously, your question is logical.
The thing is that the number of male applicants rejected is 30*2/3 = 20
So, male passed (these ones are after the first round) 30-20 = 10
The number of males and females passed 1st round was 20. (80-80*3/4)
Then males are 10/20 = 1/2
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