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Bunuel
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BrushMyQuant
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Schools: XLRI (A)
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This is good learning, Thanks Bunuel, I didn't know 0! = 1, Thank you !

I have a question though.
How is 0! = 1
because when we write a factorial of something
ex: 6! = 6x5x4x3x2x1 .......... this is product of all the number up to 1 or all number before 6 up to 1

but when it is 0!........ how can we write it as product of something up to 1, cause 1 comes after 0

so shouldn't 0! be just 0 ?

Can you please explain this.

Bunuel
Official Solution:

If \((|p|!)^p = |p|!\), which of the following could be true?

I. \(p=-1\)

II. \(p=0\)

III. \(p=1\)


A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

Two important properties:


• \(0!=1\).

• Any non-zero number raised to the power of 0 is 1.

Let's check the options:

If \(p=-1\), then \((|p|!)^p = (|-1|!)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1\) and \(|p|!=|-1|!=1!=1\), so \(p\) could be -1.

If \(p=0\), then \((|p|!)^p = (|0|!)^{0}=1^{0}=1\) and \(|0|!=0!=1\), so \(p\) could be 0.

If \(p=1\), then \((|p|!)^p = (|1|!)^{1}=1^{1}=1\) and \(|p|!=|1|!=1\), so \(p\) could be 1.

Answer: E
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DonBosco7
This is good learning, Thanks Bunuel, I didn't know 0! = 1, Thank you !

I have a question though.
How is 0! = 1
because when we write a factorial of something
ex: 6! = 6x5x4x3x2x1 .......... this is product of all the number up to 1 or all number before 6 up to 1

but when it is 0!........ how can we write it as product of something up to 1, cause 1 comes after 0

so shouldn't 0! be just 0 ?

Can you please explain this.

Bunuel
Official Solution:

If \((|p|!)^p = |p|!\), which of the following could be true?

I. \(p=-1\)

II. \(p=0\)

III. \(p=1\)


A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

Two important properties:


• \(0!=1\).

• Any non-zero number raised to the power of 0 is 1.

Let's check the options:

If \(p=-1\), then \((|p|!)^p = (|-1|!)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1\) and \(|p|!=|-1|!=1!=1\), so \(p\) could be -1.

If \(p=0\), then \((|p|!)^p = (|0|!)^{0}=1^{0}=1\) and \(|0|!=0!=1\), so \(p\) could be 0.

If \(p=1\), then \((|p|!)^p = (|1|!)^{1}=1^{1}=1\) and \(|p|!=|1|!=1\), so \(p\) could be 1.

Answer: E

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This one is simple we can jump right in and solve
-1: the absolute value of -1 is 1, 1 factorial is 1 1^-1 is 1/1
we will get 1/1=1 which is true

0: the absolute value of 0 is 0, 0 factorial is 0 0^0 is 0
we will get 0=0 which is true

1: 1 factorial ^1 is 1*1=1 and 1 factorial is just 1 so this is 1=1, true

all 3 are true E is correct.

If you got this wrong and you used the absolute value correctly, make sure you know what the 1,0,-1 power indicates and then try to solve again as these can be tricky
Bunuel
If \((|p|!)^p = |p|!\), which of the following could be true?

I. \(p=-1\)

II. \(p=0\)

III. \(p=1\)

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III


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