Last visit was: 25 Apr 2026, 16:54 It is currently 25 Apr 2026, 16:54
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
MathRevolution
User avatar
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Sep 2022
Posts: 10,063
Own Kudos:
20,004
 [26]
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
Posts: 10,063
Kudos: 20,004
 [26]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
24
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
PKN
Joined: 01 Oct 2017
Last visit: 11 Oct 2025
Posts: 809
Own Kudos:
1,637
 [3]
Given Kudos: 41
Status:Learning stage
WE:Supply Chain Management (Energy)
Posts: 809
Kudos: 1,637
 [3]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
MathRevolution
User avatar
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Sep 2022
Posts: 10,063
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
Posts: 10,063
Kudos: 20,004
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
JackyJan
Joined: 10 May 2025
Last visit: 25 Mar 2026
Posts: 13
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 5
Location: Germany
Posts: 13
Kudos: 10
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
We know the distribution is symmetric and 68% lie within one standard deviation.
That means:

  • 34% are between the mean and one standard deviation above
  • So, 50% − 34% = 16% lie above that point
The question says 84% of students scored less than 80 → so 16% scored above 80
That matches exactly with the 16% beyond one standard deviation above the mean.
So, 80 is one standard deviation above the mean

80-72=8
Seryozha
Bunuel KarishmaB can you please explain me this problem?
I know the logic behind these kinds of problems, but this one requires some additional efforts to solve smoothly. I want to understand the rationale of it. Thank you.
Moderators:
Math Expert
109830 posts
Tuck School Moderator
852 posts