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03 Feb 2013, 18:45
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E
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
71% (02:27) correct
29%
(02:22)
wrong
based on 129
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
Is \(\frac{x}{p}\) \((p^2 + q^2 + r^2 ) = xp + yq + zr\)?
(1) \(q^2 = r^2\)
(2) \(yq = zr\)
(1) \(q^2 = r^2\)
(2) \(yq = zr\)
03 Feb 2013, 22:46
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carcass
There are too many variables here so let's focus on logic.
Is \(\frac{x}{p}\) \((p 2 + q 2 + r 2 ) = xp + yq + zr?\)
Is \(xp + \frac{x}{p}(q 2 + r 2 ) = xp + yq + zr?\)
Is \(\frac{x}{p}(q 2 + r 2 ) = yq + zr?\)
(1) \(q^2 = r^2\)
Even if q^2 = r^2, there are lots of other variables e.g. x, y and z which can take different values to make the two sides unequal. But if q = r = 0, the two sides become equal so not sufficient alone.
(2) \(yq = zr\)
Again, there are no constraints on x and p and they can take different values to make the two sides of the equation unequal. But if q = r = 0, the two sides become equal so not sufficient alone.
Using both together, there are still no constraints on the values x and p can take so the two sides needn't be equal. But if q = r = 0, the two sides become equal so not sufficient.
Answer (E)
the question was a bit convoluted 
