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Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices

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Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices [#permalink]

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New post 04 Oct 2010, 10:33
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Question Stats:

66% (01:42) correct 34% (00:57) wrong based on 138 sessions

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Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.

A) Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B) Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply
C) Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply
D) Due to plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply
E) Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chip prices have been sent plunging

[Reveal] Spoiler: Doubt
The correct answer is A, but the thing that I don't understand it where is the antecedent for it? I know it does not always need one, but I feel as if this sentence calls for one. I.e. IT will cut production... WHAT will? If it's the manufacturer, shouldn't he/she be used?

Can anyone clarify? Thanks!
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
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Re: Oversupply of computer chips [#permalink]

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New post 04 Oct 2010, 10:36
it should be replaced with company.
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Re: Oversupply of computer chips [#permalink]

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New post 04 Oct 2010, 11:47
Dreamy wrote:
it should be replaced with company.


I agree, but unfortunately, GMAC doesn't think so :/
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Re: Oversupply of computer chips [#permalink]

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New post 05 Oct 2010, 10:14
Manufacturer does not have to refer to a person. It will very often refer to a company, and a company is always gender-neutral. So it is the automatic choice of pronoun.

Tata Motor is a company and a manufacturer. But can we call it he or he? Nay.

Secondly why is the worry about something which is not underlined. Take it as it is and get along. That is the wy to practice GMAT prep.
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Re: Oversupply of computer chips [#permalink]

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New post 05 Oct 2010, 13:53
SnehaC,

The correct pronoun to refer to manufacturers and other inanimate entities (company, book, telephone, government) is "it."

You would only use "he" or "she" with living beings. If the statement said: "The manager told us to fix the problem today or he would fire us" then you would need to use "he."

Regarding your other point: On the GMAT, the antecedent is not optional; the antecedent must be present and unambiguous.

Feel free to write back with other questions!

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Re: Oversupply of computer chips [#permalink]

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New post 02 Oct 2011, 18:57
Any explanations why D is wrong. in A, 'oversupply sent prices high' seems little odd. Experts please explain.
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Re: Oversupply of computer chips [#permalink]

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schandok wrote:
Any explanations why D is wrong. in A, 'oversupply sent prices high' seems little odd. Experts please explain.


"Due to" is correct if it can be replaced by "caused by" and the resulting sentence stil makes sense.

Caused by plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month => does not make sense. we have a dangling modifier.

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Re: Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices [#permalink]

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New post 13 Aug 2012, 11:02
In A 'oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging' sounds awkward to me. What is plunging here - A noun? I don't get why 'send prices plunging' is used. Is this normal usage?

Thanks in advance !
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Re: Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices [#permalink]

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New post 13 Aug 2012, 16:13
Well, the reason I did not like D was because it didn't clarify what was the oversupply. We know that there was an oversupply of computer chips, but that's only because we learned from school about the laws of supply and demand. In terms of written English, we have no idea what the oversupply was of. As a matter of fact, none of the answer choices say what the oversupply was of except A.
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Re: Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices [#permalink]

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New post 13 Aug 2012, 16:15
mneeti wrote:
In A 'oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging' sounds awkward to me. What is plunging here - A noun? I don't get why 'send prices plunging' is used. Is this normal usage?

Thanks in advance !


"send prices plunging" is not being used though. "send prices plunging" is present tense" but the tense for the answer choice is past perfect "has sent prices plunging". X has sent Y falling, and Y will continue to fall.
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Re: Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices [#permalink]

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New post 18 Sep 2016, 04:15
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices   [#permalink] 18 Sep 2016, 04:15
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