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Hi Marty - thank you for the detailed analysis on the question.
While I understand the logic behind eliminating other options, I am having a hard time wrapping my head around Option C. Author wants us to beleive in a cause effect relationship mentioned below.

Cause (unsold houses) - > Effect (recession)
Now, this option is basically telling us, as far I can undestand, that effect( recession) exists even without a cause(unsold houses).

A effect without without a cause to me seems like a valid identifier for a weakener. Please correct me if I am wrong here. Thank you
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Can E option choice and C option choice be eliminated because even if recession causes the unsold homes and unsold homes have occurred before then we can predict the recession to occur next. So, this is not really about cause and effect that much but more about whether recession will happen next or not.
Option choice D is correct because it says that we ignore the possibility that recession happened as a mere coincidence so we cannot be sure that if unsold homes happen again, recession will definitely occur.
Is my reasoning correct here
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nikkimah

You've got it. C is trying to address other possible causes, but the author isn't trying to claim that there is only one specific cause of recessions. As you've said, they're not really trying to prove causation at all--they're just making a prediction. As for E, it's not clear that if this were the case, we'd already be in a recession. But in any case, if it turns out that there's a feedback loop, with a potential cause or marker of the recession getting further exacerbated by the recession itself, that would in no way weaken the author's point.
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I'M still having slight difficulty understanding why E is not the right answer. It does sound to weaken the argument by pointing out that unsold homes > recession may not always be true by stating that recession > unsold homes.
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This kind of answer makes sense when we don't already know the order of events. For instance, if harp players are rich, did playing the harp make them rich, or were they rich before they started playing the harp?

However, in this case, we already know the order. The author says that a peak in unsold homes was followed by a recession. So clearly in that case, the recession did not cause the homes to remain unsold, since the recession hadn't happened yet. Therefore, if E were true, it would be a separate fact (maybe recessions can also cause unsold homes), leading to the feedback effect I mentioned in my previous post. But it wouldn't affect the causal reasoning of the original argument.
scab


I'M still having slight difficulty understanding why E is not the right answer. It does sound to weaken the argument by pointing out that unsold homes > recession may not always be true by stating that recession > unsold homes.
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Hello DmitryFarber

Hope you're doing well. I solved this question using the cause-and-effect flaw and happened to get the right answer (D). But after going through the conversations in the forum, I realized there's no real cause-and-effect between unsold homes and a recession. So I tried to understand the difference between a pattern and a proof.

In my head, a past event felt like proof, so I saw it as cause-and-effect. But I now see that we call it a pattern because it's a less detailed explanation. In contrast, cause-and-effect provides a clear mechanism — for example:
“Higher mortgage rates → fewer buyers → more unsold homes” explains how and why.

A pattern like “Ice cream sales ↑ → Drownings ↑” shows a link but doesn’t explain the reason.
Is my understanding correct? Can I always use this to tell if an argument is showing cause-and-effect or just a pattern?

Thank you for your support and guidance.

Best Regards,
Komal


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nikkimah

You've got it. C is trying to address other possible causes, but the author isn't trying to claim that there is only one specific cause of recessions. As you've said, they're not really trying to prove causation at all--they're just making a prediction. As for E, it's not clear that if this were the case, we'd already be in a recession. But in any case, if it turns out that there's a feedback loop, with a potential cause or marker of the recession getting further exacerbated by the recession itself, that would in no way weaken the author's point.
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Yes! This is commonly referred to as the difference between correlation and causation. When we see that two things tend to occur together (either all the time or just more often than we'd expect from chance), there's a temptation to assume that one is causing the other. But we don't always know there's a causal link. And even when there is, it might be one of several types.

For instance, what if you learn that people who love jazz are, on average, wealthier than those who don't? (J, W are correlated) Is there a causal link? Maybe it's J-->W (loving jazz makes you wealthy--tell that to all the struggling jazz musicians). Or maybe it's W-->J (wealthiness leads you to love jazz, perhaps because you have more $$ for concerts, etc.). Or maybe a third factor is involved: X --> W & J. In that case, something else is leading to both outcomes. For instance, maybe more educated people learn to love jazz, but they also earn more money.

So that's three distinct possibilities, and that's assuming there's a causal link at all. Usually, with big statistical correlations there is some explanation. But with one-off occurrences, maybe not. If you read this post and then win the lottery, did one cause the other? In that case, it was probably just a coincidence. But if you win and want to tip me 5%, I won't be mad about it. ;)
Komal324
Hello DmitryFarber

Hope you're doing well. I solved this question using the cause-and-effect flaw and happened to get the right answer (D). But after going through the conversations in the forum, I realized there's no real cause-and-effect between unsold homes and a recession. So I tried to understand the difference between a pattern and a proof.

In my head, a past event felt like proof, so I saw it as cause-and-effect. But I now see that we call it a pattern because it's a less detailed explanation. In contrast, cause-and-effect provides a clear mechanism — for example:
“Higher mortgage rates → fewer buyers → more unsold homes” explains how and why.

A pattern like “Ice cream sales ↑ → Drownings ↑” shows a link but doesn’t explain the reason.
Is my understanding correct? Can I always use this to tell if an argument is showing cause-and-effect or just a pattern?

Thank you for your support and guidance.

Best Regards,
Komal


DmitryFarber
nikkimah

You've got it. C is trying to address other possible causes, but the author isn't trying to claim that there is only one specific cause of recessions. As you've said, they're not really trying to prove causation at all--they're just making a prediction. As for E, it's not clear that if this were the case, we'd already be in a recession. But in any case, if it turns out that there's a feedback loop, with a potential cause or marker of the recession getting further exacerbated by the recession itself, that would in no way weaken the author's point.
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This is a classic Critical Reasoning flaw question that tests your ability to spot weak pattern-based reasoning. The economist is making a critical error that appears frequently on the GMAT - let me walk you through how to identify it systematically.

Step 1: Identify the Argument Structure

The economist presents:

Current fact: Unsold homes at 20-year high
Historical precedent: Last time this happened → recession followed
Conclusion: Recession is "almost certainly" coming

Step 2: Spot the Core Flaw

Notice the strength of the conclusion ("almost certainly") versus the evidence (ONE historical instance). The economist is treating a single past correlation as proof of a reliable pattern.

Step 3: Evaluate Answer Choices

Let's eliminate the trap answers first:
Option A - Claims the economist confuses unsold homes with recession itself. But the economist clearly treats them as separate phenomena (one predicting the other).
Option B - Discusses bidirectional causation (recession causing unsold homes). The economist never claims anything about the reverse relationship.
Option C - Points out other recessions might occur without high unsold homes. This doesn't address why THIS pattern is unreliable.

Why option (D) is correct:

This correctly identifies the central flaw. The economist sees that high unsold homes were followed by recession once before and concludes this pattern will definitely repeat. The argument fails to consider that this single historical correlation might have been coincidental rather than causal. Just because two events occurred in sequence once doesn’t mean one caused the other or that the pattern is reliable for future predictions.

The complete solution reveals the framework for spotting this flaw type across all GMAT pattern-based arguments - including how to quickly eliminate reverse causation traps (like choice E) and identify when "coincidence" is the core vulnerability.
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Economist: In Nation X, the number of unsold homes on the market recently reached a twenty-year high. The last time the number of unsold homes was that high, a severe economic recession soon followed. Therefore, the nation's economy is almost certainly about to suffer another severe recession.

The economist's reasoning is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds?

A. It confuses a claim about the number of unsold homes on the market with a more general claim about an overall economic recession. -- this isn't a flaw

B. It overlooks the possibility that even if one phenomenon causally contributes to another, the latter sometimes, but not always, causally contributes to the former. -- this is written in a way to trick you into thinking: hey, the economist could be reading the causal claim wrong, maybe its the reverse. BUT, notice "sometimes, but not always" implies BOTH directions can co-occur, which isn't a flaw in the argument -

C. It overlooks the possibility that other severe economic recessions in Nation X may have occurred when there were not an unusually large number of unsold homes on the market. -- alt plan

D. It fails to address adequately the possibility that one phenomenon may closely follow another by coincidence. -- the causal claim is just a coincidence. clean flaw

E. It fails to address adequately the possibility that a severe economic recession may itself cause more homes to remain on the market unsold.­ -- also wrong because it doesn't break the causal claim: it says yeah the direction is stronger for recession -> unsold homes (by using "cause more unsold homes") but it doesn't wreck the (weaker) unsold -> recession causal claim
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Borrat

Isn't option E better than D because it suggests a reversal of causation - isnt that the strongest argument against it?
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The crux is this:
we have a Causal claim: An increase in unsold homes leads to a recession.



Choice D: Argues there’s no causal link—just coincidence. so the author is delusional
→ This completely destroys the authors claim.
Choice E: Argues the reverse causality IN ADDITION to the current causality—recession increases more unsold homes.
→ This weakens the claim but doesn’t invalidate it; both directions could be true - E is just saying the relationship is more complicated.

I hope this helps.


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Borrat

Isn't option E better than D because it suggests a reversal of causation - isnt that the strongest argument against it?
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MartyMurray , what do you think about my evaluation of E vs D ? I know you mentioned something about present vs past but it completely went over my head.
Borrat
The crux is this:
we have a Causal claim: An increase in unsold homes leads to a recession.



Choice D: Argues there’s no causal link—just coincidence. so the author is delusional
→ This completely destroys the authors claim.
Choice E: Argues the reverse causality IN ADDITION to the current causality—recession increases more unsold homes.
→ This weakens the claim but doesn’t invalidate it; both directions could be true - E is just saying the relationship is more complicated.

I hope this helps.



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I interpreted the economist???s argument as a sample-to-prediction argument rather than a causal one. The economist observes a single historical pattern ???> a high number of unsold homes preceding a recession ??? > and uses that observation to make a highly confident prediction, without proposing any causal mechanism linking the two events.

That is why I selected D (coincidence) instead of E (reverse causation).

E is weak because the economist never advances a causal claim in the first place, so there is no causal direction to reverse. In addition, the sequence of events already establishes that the rise in unsold homes occurred before the recession, which independently undermines a reverse-causation objection.
D is stronger because the prediction depends entirely on a single observed co-occurrence. If that historical relationship was merely coincidental, then the economist lacks sufficient evidence for an ???almost certain??? prediction. A coincidence objection does not require the argument to be causal; it applies whenever a broad conclusion is drawn from an isolated instance.. so, the core weakness is essentially insufficient sample size / overgeneralization from extremely limited evidence.
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distinction between D and E

Reverse causation weakens best when argument says:

“A causes B.”

But here argument is closer to:

“A predicts B.”

For prediction arguments:

reverse causation often does NOT destroy the logic.

Coincidence/pattern weakness is usually stronger.



(A)
It confuses a claim about the number of unsold homes on the market with a more general claim about an overall economic recession.
Evaluation
Argument is NOT confusing the two concepts.
The economist is saying:
high unsold homes may indicate recession
Not:
high unsold homes = recession itself

(B)
The economist’s reasoning is:
last time:
unsold homes came
recession followed
unsold homes again now
recession likely again
Notice:
The economist is treating:
unsold homes as a WARNING SIGN.
Not proving strict one-way causation.
(D) attacks the weak pattern logic:
“this happened before, so it will happen again.”
That directly weakens the prediction structure.

(C)
It overlooks the possibility that other severe economic recessions in Nation X may have occurred when there were not an unusually large number of unsold homes on the market.
Evaluation
Very tempting.
But careful:
This choice attacks:
whether high unsold homes are NECESSARY for recession.
Argument does NOT claim:
every recession must involve high unsold homes.
Argument only claims:
current high unsold homes suggest recession likely.
Even if some recessions occurred without high unsold homes,
the economist’s reasoning could still survive.

(E)
It fails to address adequately the possibility that a severe economic recession may itself cause more homes to remain on the market unsold.
Evaluation
This is reverse causation.
But timeline kills it.
Argument says:
high unsold homes came BEFORE recession
therefore predicts recession
Choice says:
recession may cause unsold homes
Even if true, that does not weaken prediction much because:
economist is using unsold homes as earlier indicator.
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