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rjkaufman21
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Bunuel
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Bunuel never ceases to amaze me. His reasoning is so sharp and his methods so efficient, I bet he conquers every problem in under 30 seconds. I have been following his posts extensively hoping to learn to think like he does. Lifelong fan right here.
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whoops :P ! thanks a ton bunuel. Got it. :-D
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rjkaufman21
If a does not equal to zero, is 1/a > a/(b^4 +3)?

(1) a = b^2
(2) a^2 = b^4

This comes from the MGMAT advanced quant guide #4-9.

Statement I is sufficient:
(1/b^2) > a/(b^4 + 3)

We can cross multiply since both the denominators are positive for sure
b^4 + 3 > b^2(b^2)
B^4 + 3 > B^4 - Well that is true every time

Statement II is insufficient
a^2 = b^4
If a is and b are positive then the equation will turn to: B^4 + 3 > B^4 In that case YES
If a is negative and b is positive then a = -b^2, substituting it we will get:
b^4 + 3 < -1 (b^2)(b^2)
b^4 + 3 < -(b^4) - That is not true

So we have a YES and a NO hence statement II is insufficient

Answer is A
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\(If A \neq 0, is\) \(\frac{1}{A}\) \(>\) \(\frac{A}{B^4+3} ?\)

(1) \(A = B^2\)
(2) \(A^2 = B^4\)

It's a Yes/No question. From question itself we can deduce that \((B^4+3)\) will always be positive.
Rephrasing question -> \(\frac{B^4+3}{A}\) \(>\) \(\frac{A}{1} ?\)
Note that ,we can not multiply A in this inequality since A might be negative too.

Stmt 1 -
\(A = B^2\) => A is square of some number (B in this case) so A will always be positive. So multiply with A both side ->
squaring statement 1 at both sides gives us \(A^2 = B^4\) so we now can multiply with A at both sides as A will always be positive => Sufficient

Stmt 2 -
\(A^2 = B^4\) => Here A can be negative also as shown below -
\(A = B^2\) or \(A = -B^2\)
So this statement is not Sufficient.

Hence A.
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Won't option 1 and 2 give the same output? I feel its D
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shriirah
Won't option 1 and 2 give the same output? I feel its D

No. Please review solution here carefully.
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