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If you decrease something by x%, you multiply it by 1 - (x/100). In this question, we're decreasing an $80 price by x%, then by y%, so the final price will be:

80(1 - (x/100))(1 - (y/100)) = 80(1 - x/100 - y/100 + xy/10,000)
= 80 - (80/100)(x + y - (xy/100))

so if we can find the value of x + y - xy/100, we can answer the question. So Statement 1 is sufficient. Statement 2 is not, as you can see by taking any two different numerical examples at all.
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When we provide successive discounts, it can be calculated one by one on final price.
or you can directly use the formula :

If the first discount is x% and 2nd discount is y% then Successive Discount Formula –

Total discount = ( x + y – xy /100)%


sjuniv32
IanStewart, BrentGMATPrepNow, avigutman, EMPOWERgmatRichC, GMATBusters
Dear mentors, could you please resolve the DS posted above? Thanks in advance!
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Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

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