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xlick
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GmatPrepTest2-Question1 22 Feb 2009, 15:50
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GmatPrepTest2-Question1 22 Feb 2009, 18:07
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From the question stem it is given that \(m = (p^x) * (t ^ y)\). We can conclude that exponents - x>=1 and y >= 1. The question asked is " Is m a multiple of \((p^2) t\) ? ". We can also rephrase the question as "Is x >= 2 ?"

From stmt1 - m has more than 9 factors ==> (x+1)(y+1) >= 9 ==> we cannot say the value of x and y here. So insufficient.

From stmt2 - m is a multiple of \(p^3\) ==> x = 3 which is clearly > 2. Hence it is sufficient to say that m a multiple of \((p^2) t\) because y is atleast 1 from the given question clue, and x = 3 from the second statement.

IMO B.
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xlick
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GmatPrepTest2-Question1 23 Feb 2009, 06:19
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You are right. OA is B. But can you provide an example of m?
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GmatPrepTest2-Question1 23 Feb 2009, 08:12
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stmt 1 :

Let take m= 2^1 * 3^ 9. So here u can see m is not multiple of not p^2 *t but factors greater than 10.Insufficient

stmt 2 :

m is a multiple of p^3. (m = p^3 * k)

so m = 2^3 * 3^1.so m is a mutiple of p2 *t

Sufficient B. Hope u got it.



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