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The Western world s love affair with chocolate is

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VP
Joined: 17 Jun 2008
Posts: 1322
The Western world s love affair with chocolate is [#permalink]

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06 Sep 2008, 08:09
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The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it

i need help in have been known to have vs have been known to

(A) Vs (D) whats the logic behind this

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Senior Manager
Joined: 06 Apr 2008
Posts: 401

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06 Sep 2008, 10:17
spriya wrote:
The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it

i need help in have been known to have vs have been known to

(A) Vs (D) whats the logic behind this

IMO A)

Since this is an action from past going into present we need present perfect.
VP
Joined: 05 Jul 2008
Posts: 1368

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06 Sep 2008, 13:52
have been known already conveys the continuous tense.

the second have is redundant. also why do we want tasted (past tense) in the middle of a present continuous tense

IMO D.
SVP
Joined: 17 Jun 2008
Posts: 1502

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08 Sep 2008, 03:05
icandy wrote:
have been known already conveys the continuous tense.

the second have is redundant. also why do we want tasted (past tense) in the middle of a present continuous tense

IMO D.

I thought "tasted" is used in the past participle form.

I will go with A. "have been known" shows continuity in "know" whereas "have tasted" shows continuity in "taste".
Manager
Joined: 21 Aug 2008
Posts: 191

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08 Sep 2008, 06:05
spriya wrote:
The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it

i need help in have been known to have vs have been known to

(A) Vs (D) whats the logic behind this

The fact that the people taste it has been known. Past perfect tense indicates no more action or action completed at the time of past.
Intern
Joined: 07 Sep 2008
Posts: 11

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08 Sep 2008, 09:59
D seems right to me. I would have to brush up on my grammar before I could say why
VP
Joined: 17 Jun 2008
Posts: 1322

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08 Sep 2008, 19:13
Actually OA is D

X is known to have met Y
X Has been known to meet Y
X has been known to have met Y

I understand that the have been is already with people and thus action taste need not be in past participle.!!!but can anyone clearify these statements above !!!
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Its Now Or Never

Director
Joined: 20 Sep 2006
Posts: 639

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08 Sep 2008, 19:15
ssandeepan wrote:
1 verb/Clause ?

Yeupp ... I read it some where that using 2 verbs in one clause/sentence is not a good construction
Retired Moderator
Joined: 18 Jul 2008
Posts: 920

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10 Sep 2008, 14:31
I went with A. Where did you get this question?
SVP
Joined: 29 Aug 2007
Posts: 2452

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11 Sep 2008, 21:13
Also go for D.

spriya wrote:
The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it

i need help in have been known to have vs have been known to

(A) Vs (D) whats the logic behind this

rao_1857 wrote:
ssandeepan wrote:
1 verb/Clause ?

Yeupp ... I read it some where that using 2 verbs in one clause/sentence is not a good construction

not necessarily true. if two verbs are put unnecessarily and in an awkward way such as in this question, definitely yes. for example:

Banks are not performing well this time doesnot mean that they are always risky.

Whats wrong with this sentence?
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Last edited by GMAT TIGER on 12 Sep 2008, 09:54, edited 1 time in total.
Manager
Joined: 27 May 2008
Posts: 139

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12 Sep 2008, 01:34
I chose A ...

HELP NEEDED (
Manager
Joined: 04 Jan 2008
Posts: 117

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12 Sep 2008, 02:03
Bang on target! D was what i thought, though OA got released too early.
Retired Moderator
Joined: 18 Jul 2008
Posts: 920

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12 Sep 2008, 06:29
But I still don't see an explanation of why A over D, except icandy's.
Manager
Joined: 27 May 2008
Posts: 139

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15 Sep 2008, 08:53

--== Message from GMAT Club Team ==--

This is not a quality discussion. It has been retired.

If you would like to discuss this question please re-post it in the respective forum. Thank you!

To review the GMAT Club's Forums Posting Guidelines, please follow these links: Quantitative | Verbal Please note - we may remove posts that do not follow our posting guidelines. Thank you.
Re: sc-choc   [#permalink] 15 Sep 2008, 08:53
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