nahid78
Bill has a set of 6 black cards and a set of 6 red cards. Each card has a number from 1 through 6, such that each of the numbers 1 through 6 appears on 1 black card and 1 red card. Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles all 12 cards, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds
exactly one pair of cards that have the same value?
(A) 8/33
(B) 16/33
(C) 17/33
(D) 1/33
(E) 20/33
Everyone is forgetting to account for the possibility of two pairs. Everyone says "P(exactly one pair) = 1 - P(No pairs). Does anyone know how to do it with P(Exactly one pair) = 1 - (P(no pairs)*P(2 pairs)?
This is my math.
P(No Pairs) = (12/12) * (10/11) * (8/10) * (6/9) = 16/33
P(Two Pairs) = (12/12) * (1/11) * (10/10) * (1/9) = 1/99
Then I multiplied them both and got roughly 1/198.
I feel like everyone forgets the possibility of there being two pairs. Taking that into account, is this correct?
**EDIT**
I retried this problem. Here is my new math.
"Probability of
exactly 1 pair" is similar to getting A - A - B - C in which A,B & C are all digits 1-6.
So the Probability of getting A or any number for that matter is (1)
Probability of matching that same number A is (1/11)
Probability of getting any other number B is (1)
Probability of getting any other number that doesn't match B is C = (8/9)
Hence, (1)*(1/11)*(1)*(8/9)
Then you need to account for all the possible permutations of A - A - B - C which is (4!/2!)
Therefore, Probability of getting
exactly 1 pair =
(1)*(1/11)*(1)*(8/9)*(4)*(3) =
8/11Please let me know if this is correct!!