Feb2024
gmatophobia Bunuel KarishmaB MartyMurrayHello Experts!
Can someone please tell me why the following approach is incorrect:
The probability that the same face does not show up in any three consecutive flips is
= 1 -P (same face shows up in any 3 consecutive flips +
same face shows up in any 4 consecutive flips +
same face shows up in all 5 consecutive flips)------------------------------------( Eq. 1)
Now, number of times 3 consecutive flips can be chosen is:
i) Flip number 1,2 & 3
ii) Flip number 2,3 & 4
iii) Flip number 3,4 & 5
Similarly, number of times 4 consecutive flips can be chosen is:
i) Flip number 1,2,3 & 4
ii) Flip number 2,3,4 & 5
And, number of times 5 consecutive flips can be chosen is:
i) Flip number 1,2,3,4 & 5
NOW, each of the consecutive flips may have Head or Tail as an outcome.
So, summarising the above information into Eq. 1,
The probability that the same face does not show up in any three consecutive flips is
= 1 -P (same face shows up in any 3 consecutive flips +
same face shows up in any 4 consecutive flips +
same face shows up in all 5 consecutive flips)
= 1- (3*2*(1/2)^5 + 2*2*(1/2)^5 + 1*2*(1/2)^5)
= 1- ([6+4+2][/32])
= [5][/8]
Hence, Ichoose option B could be the answer.
Please tell me where is the mistake in this approach.
Thanks in Advance!
You're close, but you left out some cases.
For three consecutive flips, there are more than what you said.
As you said, there are the following:
Quote:
i) Flip number 1,2 & 3
ii) Flip number 2,3 & 4
iii) Flip number 3,4 & 5
At the same time, in using just those cases, you are assuming that the other flips are all the opposite sides of the coin. However, they are not necessarily.
For example for heads 1, 2, & 3, we could have TT for 4 and 5, as you implied, or TH, which you didn't consider. So, there's one case you missed.
Then for heads 3, 4, & 5, we could have TT for 1 and 2, as you implied, or HT, which you didn't consider. So, there's another case you missed.
Similarly, you missed two cases for TTT as well.
Thus, there are four more cases of exactly three consecutive flips, meaning that 1/8 more cases have exactly three consecutive flips.
So, the answer is not 1 - ((6+4+2)/32). It's 1 - ((10+4+2)/32) = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2.
Tricky question for sure!