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Bunuel
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why are we doing (1−x)∗0.5? why it shouldn't be x*0.5?
pls explain
thnx

If x part of the original solution was replaced then (1 - x) part of the original solution is left in which 50% is acid.
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I agree with explanation. other method can be alligation:

since 50% and 30% solutions giving 40%. therefore, new ratio is 1:1 (meaning both original solutions formed equal part). therefore, 50% solution's only half part was replaced (1/2. as other half formed by 30% solution)
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I like to do the "see-saw" approach for this.
You started at 50, replaced with 30. So 50-30 = 20. 20 is the total of the potential change.
The result was 40. So 50-40 = 10. 10 is the change in the composition of the new mixture vs. the composition of the old mixture.
If we take the actual change over the potential change, or 10/20, we get 1/2, which is the answer.
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Bunuel Can we use weighted averages to find a solution for this?
-Aman
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Bunuel Can we use weighted averages to find a solution for this?
-Aman

Check here: https://gmatclub.com/forum/some-part-of ... 68805.html
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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