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In probability for multiple event experiments, the probability for A or B is the following:

P(A)+P(B)-P(A and B)

So we substitute the data from the question:

3/4 + 2/3 - (3/4 * 2/3) = 17/12 - 6/12 = 11/12

Answer is E
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this is a typical question that "begs" you to identify the probability of not passing either of the exams.
In this particular case, the probability of not passing the first exam is 1/4. The probability of not passing the second exam is 1/3.
The probability of not passing both of the exams is thus equal to (1/4) * (1/3) = 1/12
We can then deduct 1/12 from one, and we will get 11/12. This is the probability of passing at least one exam :)
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HI All,

The "intent" of this question is not perfectly clear from the wording.

IF the intent is to ask....what is the probability of passing JUST ONE test, then the answer is 5/12.

IF the intent is to ask....what is the probability of passing AT LEAST ONE test, then the answer is 11/12.

The various approaches for those solutions have already been presented by other posters, so I won't rehash any of that math here. The Official GMAT writes (and tests out) it's questions so that the meaning is clear and there is no 'interpretational bias.', so Test Takers won't left to question what the prompt actually asks for.

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Given: A student is to take her final exams in two subjects. The probability that she will pass the first subject is 3/4 and the probability that she will pass the second subject is 2/3.

Asked: What is the probability that she will pass one exam or the other exam?

The probability that she will pass one exam or the other exam
= 1 - The probability that she will fail both exams
= 1 - (1-3/4)(1-2/3) = 1 - (1/4)(1/3) = 1 - 1/12 = 11/12

IMO E
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Bunuel what is your take on this ?
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Bunuel what is your take on this ?

As pointed out above, the wording is not good at all, so I recommend ignoring this question and moving on.

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