akash.tripathi
Can ant one please explain why to use "has" instead of did ?
Even though my answer was right i am still confused with when to use did or when to use has
Main point is to explain that China crushed a demonstration and that was so brutal that no other country has done it again since that moment of time.
has.............is perfect to indicate present perfect tense for a task that has begun in the past at one time and has its impact till now.
did..............we cant use did as it indicates verb in past tense only.
Not since Communist China crushed the democratic demonstrations at Tianenmen Square
has a country so brutally denied the right of its citizens that they could speak freely.(A) has a country so brutally denied the right of its citizens that they could speak freely
(B)
did a country so brutally
deny the right of its citizens that they could speak freely
(C) has a country so brutally denied the right of its citizens to speak freely
(D)
did a country so brutally
deny the right of its citizens to speak freely
(E) has a country so brutally denied whether its citizens had the right that they could be speaking freely
verb
denied makes sense not just deny.
denied the right to do sth is correct................filtering B and D.
not denied the right of its citizens that they could speak freely as this is cumbersome.............this filters A, B and E.
Also whether spoils the meaning in E.