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[GMAT math practice question]

What is \(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{42} + \frac{1}{56}?\)

\(A. \frac{3}{5}\)

\(B. \frac{5}{8}\)

\(C. \frac{7}{8}\)

\(D. \frac{8}{9}\)

\(E. \frac{9}{10}\)


\(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{42} + \frac{1}{56}\)

\(= \frac{1}{2} + (\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{3}) + (\frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4}) + (\frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{5}) + (\frac{1}{5} - \frac{1}{6}) + (\frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{7}) + (\frac{1}{7} - \frac{1}{8})\)

\(= \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{8}\)

\(= 1 - \frac{1}{8}\)

\(= \frac{7}{8}\)

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1/2
1/6=1/2-1/3
1/12=1/3-1/4
1/20=1/4-1/5
1/30=1/5-1/6
1/42=1/6-1/7
1/56=1/7-1/8

If add all together, we will get 1/2+1/2+(-1/8)=7/8.
Answer choice is C.

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=>

\(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{42} + \frac{1}{56}\)

\(= \frac{1}{(1*2)} + \frac{1}{(2*3)} + \frac{1}{(3*4)} + \frac{1}{(4*5)} + \frac{1}{(5*6)} + \frac{1}{(6*7)} + \frac{1}{(7*8)}\)

\(= (\frac{1}{1} – \frac{1}{2}) + (\frac{1}{2} – \frac{1}{3}) + (\frac{1}{3} – \frac{1}{4}) + (\frac{1}{4} – \frac{1}{5}) + (\frac{1}{5} – \frac{1}{6}) + (\frac{1}{6} – \frac{1}{7}) + (\frac{1}{7} – \frac{1}{8})\)

\(= \frac{1}{1} – \frac{1}{8} = \frac{7}{8}\)

Therefore, C is the answer.
Answer: C
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Factored out 1/2. I found that each fraction multiplied by the LCM of the next fraction reduces to another fraction that can also be easily simplified.

Factoring gives you 1/2(1+ 1/3+1/6+1/10+1/15+1/21+1/28).

I left one for the end and started with 1/3. 1/3+1/6 = 3/6. Reduce to 1/2, and now you can easily see that 1/2+1/10 = 6/10. Reduce that to 3/5. 3/5+1/15= 10/15. So on and so forth.

This method took me ~3 mins
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