Shrey~
The conclusion of the statement is, "transition of Europe to a farming and milk-drinking society was much more violent and transformative".
What if, that transition never happened and Europe was already a farming and milk-drinking society? Proving that would be a weakener for this conclusion. That's what B does.
IMO, D doesn't seem to weaken the conclusion. As there can be trade between 2 communities it's not necessary that there will be no violence which would follow.
AjiteshArun zhanbo generis GMATNinja Can you please help me clear my understanding here ?
Hi Shrey~,
I think there are a few problems with option B:
1. I agree with zhanbo that option B is limited to "several" hunter-gatherer societies (that drank milk before ME communities migrated into the region). The argument is about all of Europe, so the discovery of some hunter-gatherer societies that drank milk isn't a very strong weakener.
2. Technically, the argument never directly links the "white revolution" to milk. Some test takers, especially Indians, may be very familiar with
the term, but there is, at best, only an indirect link in this argument between "white revolution" and milk.
To be clear, the argument is almost certainly trying to link the two. This point is just to say that it doesn't make that connection explicit.
3. The argument assumes that the transition took place. The only point of contention is whether that transition was much more violent and transformative than previously thought. An option that helps us believe that the transition never took place would weaken the argument, but option B doesn't really do that very well (point
1).
Option D, on the other hand, tells us that the ME villages were established
near the hunter-gatherer communities, which means that it may not have been a conquest, and the existence of trade helps us believe that things weren't as violent as the author of this argument may think.