sangeeth0199
Hello

Could someone please solve this?
Question:
After having had Ann Boleyn beheaded, the next day King Henry VIII was betrothed to Jane Seymour.
(A) After having had Ann Boleyn beheaded, the next day King Henry VIII was betrothed to Jane Seymour.
(B) After having had Ann Boleyn beheaded, King Henry VIII was betrothed to Jane Seymour the next day.
(C) Having had Ann Boleyn beheaded, King Henry VIII was betrothed to Jane Seymour the next day.
(D) On the day after he had Ann Boleyn beheaded, King Henry VIII was betrothed to Jane Seymour.
(E) On the day after having had Ann Boleyn beheaded, King Henry VIII was betrothed to Jane Seymour.
Hello,
sangeeth0199. I mostly agree with the post above. Looking at (A) through (C) together, we should ask ourselves whether the presence of
after (in (A) and (B)) is strictly necessary to convey the vital meaning of the sentence. The answer is no. The beginning of (C) is perfectly functional, even if there may be a better way of expressing the same idea. The original sentence also places
the next day in a tight spot right after the comma, where we would expect
King Henry VIII to be instead. That is, the king had his wife beheaded, so we anticipate something more along the lines of
After having [done something], King Henry VIII [did something]. Between (B) and (C), the latter is more concise without losing anything in the way of meaning, so get rid of (B). Leave (C) alone for now as the best of that lot.
Between (D) and (E), we have to ask ourselves which sentence better conveys the idea that the king had someone (his wife) beheaded. The placement of
on the day is a push.
After he had Ann Boleyn beheaded, King Henry VIII [did something] clearly conveys the course of action;
after having had Ann Boleyn beheaded masks the meaning. Rather than untangle (E), I would disfavor it for (D).
Finally, between (C) and (D), again, (D) proves clearer, easier to follow. The placement of
the next day at the end of (C) leads us, as readers, to believe that the king married Jane Seymour right after the execution of Ann Boleyn, perhaps within minutes. But then the information about timing seems to muddle the picture, and we have to go back to create a clear sequence of events. Choice (D) clarifies the matter upfront:
on the day after. All points considered, we should favor (D).
One final note:
had in (D) is in the simple past tense, not the past perfect. The way you can tell is that
beheaded is not used as a verb. King Henry VIII
had someone beheaded: he did not himself
behead someone. The past perfect of
have would be
had had. It is acceptable to use either the simple past or the past perfect in a sentence with a timestamp in the form of a dependent clause:
1)
After he washed his hands, he ate dinner.2)
After he had washed his hands, he ate dinner.You would not be asked to choose between the two sentences above if no other issues separated the two. If you want, I can cite official questions to show that either usage above is fine.
I hope my response proves helpful to you. Good luck with your studies.
- Andrew