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The probability of getting any particular set of numbers in a particular order is the same, (1/6)^6.

Given that no particular order matters, any one of the permutations of the set satisfies the question

6!(1/6)^6 = 5!/6^5= 120/7776

= 5/324

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The probability of getting 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6 in each roll is = \(\frac{1}{6}\) each

Now, we have to get numbers from 1 to 6 in any order

We can get the first number out of the 6 in 6 ways
We can get the next number out of the remaining 5 in 5 ways
We can get the next number out of the remaining 4 in 4 ways
We can get the next number out of the remaining 3 in 3 ways
We can get the next number out of the remaining 2 in 2 ways
We can get the next number out of the remaining 1 in 1 ways

=> We can get the 6 numbers in any order in 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 ways

=> Probability of getting the numbers from 1 to 6 in any order = 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 * Probability of getting each number
= 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 * \(\frac{1}{6}\) * \(\frac{1}{6}\) * \(\frac{1}{6}\) * \(\frac{1}{6}\) * \(\frac{1}{6}\) * \(\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1}{6^6}\) = \(\frac{5}{324}\)

So, Answer will be C
Hope it helps!

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