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Bunuel
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Let X = Amount of the profit that will be split unequally which is also...
X = Total profit - 60% of the profit split equally or 40% of the total profit

Total invested = $125,000 + $85,000 = $210,000

Woman 1 will receive 125,000/210,000 of X --> 25/42
Woman 2 will receive 85,000/210,000 of X --> 17/42

The difference in amount that each woman receives is therefore
25/42(X) - 17/42(X) = 8/42(X)

We are told that the difference between how much each is paid is $300 therefore
8/42*(X) = $300 ---> 4/21*(X) = $300 ---> 1/21*(X) = 75
X = 1575

Since we know X is 40% of the total profit, we can multiply X by .4 to get the total profit
1575/(.4) = 3937.5

The answer is C
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Nightzade
Let X = Amount of the profit that will be split unequally which is also...
X = Total profit - 60% of the profit split equally or 40% of the total profit

Total invested = $125,000 + $85,000 = $210,000

Woman 1 will receive 125,000/210,000 of X --> 25/42
Woman 2 will receive 85,000/210,000 of X --> 17/42

The difference in amount that each woman receives is therefore
25/42(X) - 17/42(X) = 8/42(X)

We are told that the difference between how much each is paid is $300 therefore
8/42*(X) = $300 ---> 4/21*(X) = $300 ---> 1/21*(X) = 75
X = 1575

Since we know X is 40% of the total profit, we can multiply X by .4 to get the total profit
1575*(.4) = 3937.5

The answer is C




rest is correct just we need to divide X by 0.4 to get 3937.5
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Whoops. Thanks for the catch
pappal
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Let X = Amount of the profit that will be split unequally which is also...
X = Total profit - 60% of the profit split equally or 40% of the total profit

Total invested = $125,000 + $85,000 = $210,000

Woman 1 will receive 125,000/210,000 of X --> 25/42
Woman 2 will receive 85,000/210,000 of X --> 17/42

The difference in amount that each woman receives is therefore
25/42(X) - 17/42(X) = 8/42(X)

We are told that the difference between how much each is paid is $300 therefore
8/42*(X) = $300 ---> 4/21*(X) = $300 ---> 1/21*(X) = 75
X = 1575

Since we know X is 40% of the total profit, we can multiply X by .4 to get the total profit
1575*(.4) = 3937.5

The answer is C




rest is correct just we need to divide X by 0.4 to get 3937.5
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Can someone please explain why interest is in the ratio of capital? The rates can be different also, then this may not be the case
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Absolutely true if rates were specified.
But here, it's the same buisness and there is a mutual agreement that rest will be interest on capital, itself sufficient to support that it will be divided in capital's ratio.
IMO
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