I14-22

Question

https://gmatclub.com/gmat-focus-tests/resources/import/img/I05-08new.png 
 
The graph compares the number of post offices and the population in the United States from 1790 to 2000. The white columns represent the number of post offices (in thousands), while the shaded columns represent the population (in millions).
 
 Select from each drop-down menu the option that creates the most accurate statement, given the information provided.

The lowest number of people per post office in the United States during the study period was approximately  GRAPH_1_PLACEHOLDER .

The number of people per post office in the United States in 1950 was approximately  GRAPH_2_PLACEHOLDER  times greater than that in 1900.

Bunuel · Answer

Official Solution:

Drop-down 1: 
 
The lowest number of people per post office corresponds to the year where the white column (representing the number of post offices) is largest relative to the shaded column (representing the population). This ratio is highest in 1900, when the two columns are approximately equal in height. However, it is important to note that the white columns (number of post offices) are measured in thousands, while the shaded columns (population) are measured in millions. Therefore, a 1-to-1 height ratio on the graph translates to 1,000 people per post office.
 
 Drop-down 2: 
 
In 1950, the height of the shaded column is approximately 160, while the height of the white column is approximately 50, giving a ratio of 3.2. This translates to 3,200 people per post office. In 1900, the ratio of the shaded column to the white column is 1-to-1, which translates to 1,000 people per post office. Therefore, the number of people per post office in the United States in 1950 was approximately 3 times greater than in 1900.

Correct answer:

Dropdown 1:  "1,000"

Dropdown 2:  "3"

Bunuel · Answer

I have revised the question, solution, and formatting by adding more details to enhance clarity.

IcanDoIt23 · Answer

I did not quite understand the solution. I'm having trouble with part 2 of the question. I got that the ratio to 1950 with 1900 is about 3:1. So, I thought the 1950 value is 2 times "greater" than 1900 value or 1950 is 3 times of 1900. Can you pl help me if I'm understanding this incorrectly?

Bunuel · Answer

Here is my post from another topic addressing this issue:

Agree that it's confusing but check below:

Merriam Webster's  Dictionary of English Usage :

The argument in this case is that times more (or times larger, times stronger, times brighter, etc.) is ambiguous, so that "He has five times more money than you" can be misunderstood as meaning "He has six times as much money as you." It is, in fact, possible to misunderstand times more in this way, but it takes a good deal of effort. If you have $100, five times that is $500, which means that "five times more than $100" can mean (the commentators claim) "$500 more than $100," which equals "$600," which equals "six times as much as $100." The commentators regard this as a serious ambiguity, and they advise you to avoid it by always saying "times as much" instead of "times more." Here again, it seems that they are paying homage to mathematics at the expense of language. The fact is that "five times more" and "five times as much" are idiomatic phrases which have - and are understood to have - exactly the same meaning.

The "ambiguity" of times more is imaginary: in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of times more is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuries, and there is no real reason to avoid its use.

The "ambiguity" of  times more  is imaginary : in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of  times more  is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuries, and there is no real reason to avoid its use.

I14-22

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