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Since the incidence rate for conjunctivitis is the same for people of all ages and the average age will increase, therefore E is the answer.
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Hi Amanarora87

the answer is E because,

Incidence of conjuctivitis is same across all age groups. By 2010 there will be many >50aged people and hence more people likely to suffer from Conjuctivitis.

Does that make sense.


amanarora87
I disagree with the answer
If the incidence is the same across all ages, even if average age increases the incidence across all ages remains same. Option A must be correct becasue conjunctivitis will remain the most common eye disease
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shriramvelamuri - Yes i read it a few times over and I get why E is the answer.
I mistook the meaning of incidence rate to be the number of people afflicted in an age group. However, I understand now that it means the percentage of the people across all age groups.
Thank you
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Can Someone explain why option B is wrong?
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Can Someone explain why option B is wrong?

There is no information in the argument which may help us arrive at such definite conclusion ( Note the use of will - which indicates certainty).

The argument is about the likelihood/incidence rate of the diseases.

This is an inference-MUST be TRUE- question and so E is the only possibility that WILL happen.
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Hardness level of this question is somewhat overestimated.
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Deep32470
Hardness level of this question is somewhat overestimated.

We do not assign the difficulty level manually. The difficulty level of a question on the site is determined automatically based on various parameters collected from users' attempts, such as the percentage of correct answers and the time taken to answer the question. You can find the difficulty level of a question and its related statistics in the first post.

Hope it clarifies.
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As far as about option A, It is incorrect as we cant say that if today something is number 1 , it will be remain number 1 after 16 years. Argument is nowhere suggesting this
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