Historian: In rebuttal of my claim that West influenced Stuart, some people point out that West’s work is mentioned only once in Stuart’s diaries. But Stuart’s diaries mention several meetings with West, and Stuart’s close friend, Abella, studied under West. Furthermore, Stuart’s work often uses West’s terminology which, though now commonplace, none of Stuart’s contemporaries used.
Which one of the following propositions is most supported by the historian’s statements, if those statements are true?The historian is defending the claim that West influenced Stuart. The main support is that Stuart met West several times, had a close friend connected to West, and used
West’s terminology in a way that Stuart’s contemporaries did not.
So the safest conclusion is simply that Stuart was influenced by West in some way.
(A) Stuart’s discussions with Abella were one of the means by which West influenced Stuart.
This is possible, but not strongly supported. We know Abella studied under West, but we are not told that Abella and Stuart discussed West’s ideas.
(B) It is more likely that Stuart influenced West than that West influenced Stuart.
This goes against the historian’s point. Nothing here supports Stuart influencing West.
(C) Stuart’s contemporaries were not influenced by West.
This is too strong. The passage says they did not use West’s terminology, but that does not prove they were not influenced by West in any other way.
(D) Stuart’s work was not entirely free from West’s influence.
This is best supported. The evidence about Stuart’s meetings with West and especially his use of West’s terminology supports the conclusion that West influenced Stuart at least to some extent.
(E) Because of Stuart’s influence on other people, West’s terminology is now commonplace.
This is unsupported. The passage says the terminology is now commonplace, but gives no reason why.
Answer: (D)