Bunuel
Diplomat: Every major war in the last 200 years has been preceded by a short, sharp increase in the acquisition of weapons by the nations that subsequently became participants in those conflicts. Clearly, therefore, arms control agreements will preserve peace.
Of the following, which one most accurately describes a reasoning flaw in the diplomat’s argument?
(A) The argument infers, merely from the claim that events of one type have for a long time consistently preceded events of a second type, that an event of the second type will not occur unless an event of the first type occurs.
(B) The argument reasons that, simply because weapons are used in war, a rapid, dramatic increase in the acquisition of weapons will always lead to war.
(C) The argument draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim presented in support of that conclusion.
(D) The argument fails to consider that a short, sharp increase in the acquisition of weapons by a nation may be a response to the increased armament of neighboring nations.
(E) The argument fails to consider that some of the minor wars that have occurred in the last 200 years may have been preceded by rapid increases in the acquisition of weapons by the nations that subsequently became participants in those wars.
EXPLANATION FROM Fox LSAT
This is dumb. This is a correlation-equals-causation argument. The logic here would be just about as good if it had said, “Wars are generally good for the economies of the countries involved, so we can stop wars by trashing the economy.” Another example: “Heroin users generally drink milk when they are babies, so to stop heroin use we should stop giving milk to babies.” Another example: “Ferrari owners tend to be rich, so if you want to be rich you should buy a Ferrari.” Like I said, dumb.
Another major problem here is that arms
agreements do not necessarily do anything to the actual acquisition of arms. This argument sucks.
A) This seems pretty good. Events of one type (arms purchases) have for a long time (200 years) consistently preceded events of a second type (wars), therefore events of the second type (wars) will not occur unless an event of the first type (arms purchases) occur. I do think the argument made this flaw (past correlation will always hold in the future), and it’s a pretty bad flaw, so I like this answer.
B) No, the argument didn’t say, “Arms will always lead to war.” Rather, the argument said, “War won’t happen without arms.” Those aren’t logically equivalent. This ain’t it.
C) This answer describes circular reasoning. That’s a flaw, but it’s not what happens here.
D) The argument does do this, I suppose, but I’m not sure it’s a devastating flaw. Yes, Pakistan’s proposed arms acquisition is a response to India’s arms acquisition. But that doesn’t mean that stopping Pakistan’s acquisition wouldn’t still stop the war from happening. This is a tricky one, but I like A better.
E)
Minor wars just aren’t relevant. The argument was about major wars. And anyway, even if minor wars
were relevant, and it was true that arms purchases tend to spike before minor wars as well, this would only strengthen the argument, not weaken it.
Our answer is A.