Bunuel
Politician: The huge amounts of money earned by oil companies elicit the suspicion that the regulations designed to prevent collusion need to be tightened. But just the opposite is true. If the regulations designed to prevent collusion are not excessively burdensome, then oil companies will make profits sufficient to motivate the very risky investments associated with exploration that must be made if society is to have adequate oil supplies. But recent data show that the oil industry’s profits are not the highest among all industries. Clearly, the regulatory burden on oil companies has become excessive.
The reasoning in the politician’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) fails to justify its presumption that profits sufficient to motivate very risky investments must be the highest among all industries
(B) attacks the character of the oil companies rather than the substance of their conduct
(C) fails to justify its presumption that two events that are correlated must also be causally related
(D) treats the absence of evidence that the oil industry has the highest profits among all industries as proof that the oil industry does not have the highest profits among all industries
(E) illicitly draws a general conclusion from a specific example that there is reason to think is atypical
EXPLANATION FROM Fox LSAT
What is this guy talking about? The conclusion is, “Regulation of oil companies is excessive.” The evidence is, “Oil companies are making huge amounts of money,” and “If regulations are not excessively burdensome then oil companies will make profits sufficient to motivate them to invest and provide us with an adequate oil supply,” and “The oil industry’s profits are not the highest among all industries.” That last one makes me laugh. They aren’t the richest on the planet, therefore we should make them richer? Come on.
The question tells us there is a flaw in this reasoning, and I think the part that made me laugh is probably the biggest problem. You’re trying to tell me that just because they aren’t the richest industry of all, and even though we currently have an adequate oil supply, and even though the oil industry is making “huge amounts of money,” that we really need to cut these guys a break and remove the regulations? I’m not buying it.
A) Yes, the politician assumed that if the oil barons weren’t the richest of all industrialists, then we’d better let them get even richer. The politician did employ a half-assed justification for this, with the bit about the risky investments that are required, but the problem with that analysis is that the risky investments currently are being made, so how could we conclude that the regs are too tight? I like this answer, because I feel like it points out the idiocy of the argument.
B) The politician is on the oil companies’ side, so he definitely didn’t attack their character. Not even close. If you picked this answer, it’s a sure sign that you just aren’t reading carefully enough. Slow down.
C) I’m very familiar with the dreaded correlation-therefore-causation flaw, but that’s not the flaw present in this argument. A is still the best answer.
D) The argument actually doesn’t do this, because it cites “recent data” rather than citing an absence of evidence. No way.
E) This would be the answer if the argument had said, “My LSAT teacher brings us cookies, therefore all LSAT teachers bring their students cookies.” But that’s not what happened in this actual argument.
Our answer is A.