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Neural connections carrying signals from the cortex (the brain region responsible for thought) down to the amygdala (a brain region crucial for emotions) are less well developed than connections carrying signals from the amygdala up to the cortex. Thus, the amygdala exerts a greater influence on the cortex than vice versa.

The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

Highlighted text is conclusion. Notable point is that one way(from amygdala to cortex) is well developed as compared to otherwise(vice versa) and thus amygdala has more influence over cortex. Is it because of well developed neural connections from amgdala to cortex that amgdala has more influence or something else??!

(A) The influence that the amygdala exerts on the rest of the brain is dependent on the influence that the cortex exerts on the rest of the brain. - WRONG.

(B) No other brain region exerts more influence on the cortex than does the amygdala. - WRONG.

(C) The region of the brain that has the most influence on the cortex is the one that has the most highly developed neural connections to the cortex. - WRONG. Most highly ≠ well developed. Passage is about relative development.

(D) The amygdala is not itself controlled by one or more other regions of the brain. - WRONG.

(E) The degree of development of a set of neural connections is directly proportional to the influence transmitted across those connections. - CORRECT. If not so, then passage fails.

Answer E.
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Hi Experts! GMATNinja bb Bunuel MartyMurray KarishmaB

In (E) isn't "directly proprtional"a little extreme? I mean, usually, directly proprtional is y=kx , where k is a constant...from the passage we only know that they are directly correlated (as the 2 variables move in the same direction, but nothing is mentioned about the intensity). I ealier had made a note of this.. and now I am lil confused.. please help! I do get why other options can be eliminated... but in 1 go, I actually removed this one for mentioning "directly proportional". I am also not really fully convinced as to why C was incorrect... please lmk how should I be thinking here, and what can I do differently.

Thanks and Regards,
Nipunh
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Neural connections carrying signals from the cortex (the brain region responsible for thought) down to the amygdala (a brain region crucial for emotions) are less well developed than connections carrying signals from the amygdala up to the cortex. Thus, the amygdala exerts a greater influence on the cortex than vice versa.

The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

Highlighted text is conclusion. Notable point is that one way(from amygdala to cortex) is well developed as compared to otherwise(vice versa) and thus amygdala has more influence over cortex. Is it because of well developed neural connections from amgdala to cortex that amgdala has more influence or something else??!

(A) The influence that the amygdala exerts on the rest of the brain is dependent on the influence that the cortex exerts on the rest of the brain. - WRONG.

(B) No other brain region exerts more influence on the cortex than does the amygdala. - WRONG.

(C) The region of the brain that has the most influence on the cortex is the one that has the most highly developed neural connections to the cortex. - WRONG. Most highly ≠ well developed. Passage is about relative development.

(D) The amygdala is not itself controlled by one or more other regions of the brain. - WRONG.

(E) The degree of development of a set of neural connections is directly proportional to the influence transmitted across those connections. - CORRECT. If not so, then passage fails.

Answer E.
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Nipunh
Hi Experts! GMATNinja bb Bunuel MartyMurray KarishmaB

In (E) isn't "directly proprtional"a little extreme? I mean, usually, directly proprtional is y=kx , where k is a constant...from the passage we only know that they are directly correlated (as the 2 variables move in the same direction, but nothing is mentioned about the intensity). I ealier had made a note of this.. and now I am lil confused.. please help! I do get why other options can be eliminated... but in 1 go, I actually removed this one for mentioning "directly proportional". I am also not really fully convinced as to why C was incorrect... please lmk how should I be thinking here, and what can I do differently.

Thanks and Regards,

Nipunh
You might have answered your own question!

Nipunh
as the 2 variables move in the same direction, but nothing is mentioned about the intensity
The "intensity" doesn't actually matter. That is, we don't care how strong the correlation is -- in other words, we don't care what "k" is.

All that matters is that the "influence transmitted" increases as the "degree of development" increases. Or as you put, that the 2 variables move in the same direction.

If the those variables do NOT move in the same direction, then the conclusion cannot be drawn. That's why (E) needs to be assumed.
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