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Option (B) suggests that because of knowledge of side effects the results may have been biased.

(B) is my answer
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Can we discuss option C once?

Freloxamine does not exhibit a uniform effect in all subjects, with many reporting little improvement in symptoms of depression, even after several months of taking the drug.
--> This can mean that their are other aspects or factors thats working to make it 15% more likely for the patients to have reduced symptoms. The conclusion "observed drop in depression can only be attributed to Freloxamine" is not valid anymore.


Bunuel GMATNinja KarishmaB - Can you please help?
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Can we discuss option C once?

Freloxamine does not exhibit a uniform effect in all subjects, with many reporting little improvement in symptoms of depression, even after several months of taking the drug.
--> This can mean that their are other aspects or factors thats working to make it 15% more likely for the patients to have reduced symptoms. The conclusion "observed drop in depression can only be attributed to Freloxamine" is not valid anymore.


Bunuel GMATNinja KarishmaB - Can you please help?

The argument already says that 15% were more likely to have a decrease in symptoms than the control group (which means that 85% were not).

Option (C) Freloxamine does not exhibit a uniform effect in all subjects, with many reporting little improvement in symptoms of depression, even after several months of taking the drug.

But we already know that. We are not given that all had a uniform reduction in symptoms. We know that the effect was not uniform with many not reporting much improvement.
There could be other factors affecting the depression but those are common to all. Between the drug and the placebo groups, the only difference is Freloxamine and if there is a definite 15% reduction in the drug group, then it stands to reason that the decrease can be attributed to the drug.

Now if people getting the drug were to find out that they were getting the drug, then we cannot compare results and then the entire premise of double blind studies is lost. If people know that they are getting the drug, not just sugar, they may automatically start feeling better. Then the drug may not be responsible for the improvement.

Hence option (B) works.
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