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The author is arguing that if we want to help people with mental disorders in a cost-effective way, we should invest in more research on possible interventions that cut down risk factors. This relies on the assumption that reducing these risk factors would be a more cost-effective method than any alternative. If it were cheaper to wait until the disorders manifested and then trat them, then it's not clear that this preventative approach would be cost-effective. (It still might be a good thing to prevent problems before they occur, but that doesn't tell us about cost.)

A, on the other hand, simply compares a subset of mental disorders to other kinds of health problems. This does nothing for us, since the argument is only about mental disorders. We don't need to know how they compare in cost to other kinds of problems. As an analogy, if I propose a way to save money on vacations in Japan, it doesn't help to know whether trips to Japan are cheaper or more expensive than trips elsewhere. I just want to know if ONE way of visiting Japan is a better value than ANOTHER.

okHedwig
Hi,
Why is the ans C and not A?
Since C already states that Reducing known risk factors for mental disorders is relatively inexpensive compared to the long-term treatment required, then there is no need for increasing funding for intervention research since mitigating risk factors is already inexpensive.

I think only A justifies strengthening the conclusion. Please explain.
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