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I got stuck between A and E, and not sure how to eliminate E. Can someone explain?
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Commentator: The worldwide oil crisis of 1973 was not due to any real shortage of oil, but was the result of collusion between international oil companies and oil-producing countries to artificially restrict the supply of oil in order to profit from higher prices. This is shown by the fact that after 1973 the profits of oil companies showed large increases, as did the incomes of oil-producing countries.

The reasoning in the commentator's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

The argument concludes that oil companies and oil-producing countries must have caused the 1973 oil crisis because they later benefited from it. That is the key flaw: the argument treats later profit as proof of having created the event.

(A) fails to consider the possibility that a party can benefit from an event without helping to bring about that event

This is the best answer. The fact that oil companies and oil-producing countries made more money after the crisis does not prove that they caused it. A party can benefit from an event without having created it.

(B) presumes, without providing justification, that oil companies and oil-producing countries were the only parties to benefit from the 1973 oil crisis

This is not the main flaw. Even if others also benefited, that would not directly affect the argument’s bad reasoning from benefit to causation.

(C) rests on using the term "profit" in an ambiguous way

There is no important ambiguity here.

(D) fails to establish that there was a worldwide oil surplus prior to the crisis of 1973

The argument does not need to show a surplus. Its claim is that there was no real shortage, not that there was excess oil.

(E) fails to consider the possibility that events that occur simultaneously can be causally related

This is not the issue. The argument is not denying simultaneous causation. Its flaw is inferring cause from benefit.

Answer: (A)
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