A recent comparative study indicated that the number of single-parent homes in the U.S. is 360,000, while in Europe, the number is 500,000. Based on these figures, some conclude that Europe has a higher incidence of single-parent homes than the U.S.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the conclusion drawn above?The argument compares raw counts and concludes Europe has a higher “incidence,” but incidence should be relative to the total number of households or population.
(A) More people are economically independent in Europe and may live separately.
This is not directly about single parent homes, and it does not show the comparison is invalid. At best it is a vague alternative explanation.
(B) Cultural differences among European nations may influence family structures, so the numbers may not be directly comparable.
This is also vague. Different cultures could matter, but it does not identify a specific reason the conclusion is wrong based on the given figures.
(C) The number of households in Europe significantly outnumbers that of the U.S.
This directly undercuts the inference. If Europe has many more total households, then 500,000 could be a smaller rate than 360,000. So the raw count does not establish higher
incidence.
(D) The number of single-parent homes in the U.S. is increasing steadily each year.
This could be true even if Europe still has a higher incidence. It does not address the comparison being made.
(E) The figures reported, though accurate, are being reviewed for potential revisions.
If they are accurate, a review does not weaken the conclusion. It just adds uncertainty without changing the comparison.
Answer: (C)