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Bunuel
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vitaliyGMAT
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First, using the factorials rule we should express (a+1)!=(a+1)a!
Second, (a+4)(a+3)(a+2)(a+1)=(a+1)a! divide both sides by (a+1)
(a+4)(a+3)(a+2)=a!
(a+4)(a+3)(a+2)/a!=1
After substitution of all offered options it is clear that only 6 is possible, thus correct answer is D.
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Used substitution! Started from Option E. Found a = 6.
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