Last visit was: 23 Apr 2026, 14:33 It is currently 23 Apr 2026, 14:33
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
MathRevolution
User avatar
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Sep 2022
Posts: 10,063
Own Kudos:
20,000
 [11]
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
Posts: 10,063
Kudos: 20,000
 [11]
Kudos
Add Kudos
11
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
attari92
Joined: 25 Apr 2016
Last visit: 28 May 2019
Posts: 56
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 308
Posts: 56
Kudos: 42
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Hatakekakashi
Joined: 07 Jan 2016
Last visit: 22 Feb 2025
Posts: 1,228
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 126
Location: United States (MO)
GMAT 1: 710 Q49 V36
Products:
GMAT 1: 710 Q49 V36
Posts: 1,228
Kudos: 483
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
MathRevolution
User avatar
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Sep 2022
Posts: 10,063
Own Kudos:
20,000
 [1]
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
Posts: 10,063
Kudos: 20,000
 [1]
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
==> In general, you solve probability questions using nCr combination. In other words, from TTHH, there are (4!/2!/2!)=6 possibilities, so you get (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)*6=3/8. From TTTH, there are (4!/3!)=4 possibilities, so you get (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)*4=1/4. From TTTT, there is only 1 possibility, so you get (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)=1/16 and (3/8)+(1/4)+(1/16)=(6+4+1)/16=11/16.

The answer is E.
Answer: E
User avatar
Gijmaja
Joined: 24 Sep 2022
Last visit: 17 Dec 2022
Posts: 29
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 9
Location: Georgia
GMAT 1: 720 Q50 V38
GPA: 3.71
GMAT 1: 720 Q50 V38
Posts: 29
Kudos: 4
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
probability that no tail= (1/2)^4
probability that 1 tail= 4C1*(1/2)^4

1-(1/2)^4-4C1*(1/2)^4=11/16
Answer E.
User avatar
SaquibHGMATWhiz
User avatar
GMATWhiz Representative
Joined: 23 May 2022
Last visit: 12 Jun 2024
Posts: 623
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 6
Location: India
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V40
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V40
Posts: 623
Kudos: 777
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
MathRevolution
When a certain coin is flipped, the probability that the coin will land on head or tail is 1/2 each. If the coin is flipped 4 times, what is the probability that it will land on tail at least twice on 4 flips?

A. \(\frac{3}{8}\)
B. \(\frac{1}{16}\)
C. \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D. \(\frac{5}{8}\)
E. \(\frac{11}{16}\)
Solution:

  • Two ways to go about this: Calculating the favorable cases and adding them up or Calculating the unfavorable cases and subtracting them from 1
  • Let us look at the latter method
  • So, we need ATLEAST 2 tails. So, let's talk about getting 1 tail and no tail
  • 1 tail:
    • We need to rearrange THHH which can be done in \(\frac{4!}{3!}=4\) ways
    • Probability of each tail or head is \(\frac{1}{2}\)
    • So, probability of getting 1 tail \(=4\times (\frac{1}{2})^4=\frac{4}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\)
  • 2 tails:
    • We need to rearrange HHHH which can be done in \(\frac{4!}{4!}=1\) ways
    • Probability of each tail or head is \(\frac{1}{2}\)
    • So, probability of getting 1 tail \(=1\times (\frac{1}{2})^4=\frac{1}{16}\)
  • Probability of at least 2 tails \(=1-(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{16})=1-\frac{5}{16}=\frac{11}{16}\)

Hence the right answer is Option E
User avatar
BrushMyQuant
Joined: 05 Apr 2011
Last visit: 03 Apr 2026
Posts: 2,286
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 100
Status:Tutor - BrushMyQuant
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, Marketing
Schools: XLRI (A)
GMAT 1: 700 Q51 V31
GPA: 3
WE:Information Technology (Computer Software)
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: XLRI (A)
GMAT 1: 700 Q51 V31
Posts: 2,286
Kudos: 2,680
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
When a certain coin is flipped, the probability that the coin will land on head or tail is 1/2 each. If the coin is flipped 4 times

Coin is tossed 4 times => Total number of cases = \(2^4\) = 16

What is the probability that it will land on tail at least twice on 4 flips?

=> Number of cases for at least 2 Tail = 16 - (0 Tail + 1 Tail) = 16 - (1 + 4) [ 4 cases for 1 tail as 1 tail can come in any of the 4 tosses ]
=> Number of cases for at least 2 Tail = 16 - 5 = 11

P(At least 2 T) = \(\frac{11}{16}\)

So, Answer will be E
Hope it helps!

Playlist on Solved Problems on Probability here

Watch the following video to MASTER Probability with Coin Toss Problems

User avatar
messi16
Joined: 13 Aug 2025
Last visit: 14 Apr 2026
Posts: 44
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 3
Posts: 44
Kudos: 3
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Every flip has 2 possible choices, and there are four flips. Thus, we know the number of total outcomes is 2^4 = 16. Then, for the various ways we could have tails, we have 4 C 2, 4 C 3, and 4 C 4, which is simply 6 + 4 + 1 = 11. 11/16 is our final answer.
Moderators:
Math Expert
109785 posts
Tuck School Moderator
853 posts