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Bunuel
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IMPOSSIBLE7
Can we do it like below :-

Multiply x

X^2 < X^4 < X^3

Bunuel

One might think that this gives the correct answer (C), but x^2 < x^4 < x^3 is NOT correct. By the way, IF x^2 < x^4 < x^3 were correct, what would be the answer? C, x^4 is between \(x^3\) and \(x^2\)? Or D, x^4 is greater than \(x^2\)?

We should be careful when multiplying an inequality by an unknown: we should keep the sign if we multiply by a positive value and flip the sign when we multiply by a negative value.

    For example, 2 < 3. If you multiply the inequality by 4 (a positive value) we get: 8 < 12 (keep the sign!) but if you multiply the inequality by -4 (a negative value) we get: -8 > -12 (flip the sign!).


So, we cannot multiply x < x^3 < x^2 by x and write x^2 < x^4 < x^3 before considering the sign of x. If x were positive, then yes, we'd keep the sign and get x^2 < x^4 < x^3 BUT if x is negative, then after multiplying, we'd flip the sign and get x^2 > x^4 > x^3.

Never multiply (or reduce) an inequality by a variable (or the expression with a variable) if you don't know its sign.


If \(x<x^3<x^2\), then \(x^4\) must be:

(A) less than x
(B) between \(x\) and \(x^3\)
(C) between \(x^3\) and \(x^2\)
(D) greater than \(x^2\)
(E) undefined

As discussed above, this question is all about the sign of x. Let's check.

    Can x be more than 1? No, because in this case x < x^2 < x^3 < x^4 < ... (e.g. \(1.5 < 1.5^2 < 1.5^3 < 1.5^4 < ...\) or \(7 < 7^2 < 7^3 < 7^4 < ...\)) and we know that's not the case.

    Can x be between 0 and 1, say 1/2? No, because in this case x > x^2 > x^3 > x^4 > ... (e.g. \(\frac{1}{2} > (\frac{1}{2})^2 > (\frac{1}{2})^3 > (\frac{1}{2})^4 > ...\)) and we know that's not the case.

So, x MUST be negative! Now, we can multiply \(x<x^3<x^2\) by x and flip the sign to get \(x^2>x^4>x^3\)

Answer: C.

9. Inequalities



For more check Ultimate GMAT Quantitative Megathread



Hope it helps.
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