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Hi , Can you explain how in the video explanation we arrived from a discount of \(16\frac{2}{3}\) i.e. \(\frac{50}{3}\) to a decrease of \(\frac{1}{6} \)making the value to be multiplied by \(\frac{5}{6}\)?

16 2/3 % is just (50/3) / 100 and this simplifies to 1/6 leaving 5/6 left.
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A merchant buys a crate of guavas at a wholesale price of $\(x\), and then marks it up by 100%. He then discounts the guavas by 40%, then discounts the new price by another 16 2/3 % before selling them. The merchant’s total profit or loss is what percent of the wholesale price?

(A) 4% loss
(B) no profit or loss
(C) 20% profit
(D) 25% profit
(E) 33% profit

Hi GMATNinja, Can you explain how in the video explanation we arrived from a discount of \(16\frac{2}{3}\) i.e. \(\frac{50}{3}\) to a decrease of \(\frac{1}{6} \)making the value to be multiplied by \(\frac{5}{6}\)?
Well, if 16 2/3 = 50/3, we need to divide by 100 to get to 16 2/3% (remember, the "%" sign just means "divide by 100"). So we have:

    (50/3)/100 = (50/3)*(1/100), which simplifies to 1/6.

This is a very common percent to fraction conversion that comes up all the time, so it's worth remembering: 16 2/3% = 1/6. And if you're ever unsure of yourself, you can always double both sides of that conversion as a sanity check:

  • On the left you have: 16 2/3%)*2 = 32 4/3% = 33 1/3%
  • On the right you have (1/6)*2 = 2/6 = 1/3

And that of course checks out: 33 1/3% (or 33.3333....%) definitely equals 1/3, so we know that we're right with 16 2/3% = 1/6.

I hope that helps!
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