This is a moderately difficult question on Inequalities. Beware of the trap element though – you cannot cross multiply the terms in an inequality until unless you are absolutely sure of the signs of the variables.
Let’s look at statement I alone. To simplify the inequality, let us take all the variable terms on to the LHS and keep the RHS as 0 (this is a sure shot strategy that you can adopt in inequalities’ questions to make your life simpler). When we do that, we have,
\(\frac{y}{x}\) – \(\frac{x}{y}\) > 0 which gives
\(\frac{y^2 – x^2}{xy}\) > 0
\(\frac{(y-x)(y+x)}{xy}\) > 0
If the LHS is positive, it only means:
Either, (y-x), (y+x) and xy should all be positive OR negative.
If we take y = 5 and x =4 , then \(\frac{(5-4) (5+4)}{20}\) > 0. Here, x < y.
If we take y = -5 and x = -4, then \(\frac{(-5+4) (-9)}{20}\) > 0. Here x > y.
This data is insufficient. Answer options A and D can be eliminated. Possible answer options are B, C and E.
From statement II alone, we have data about y only. We do not have any information about x. Therefore, this statement is insufficient. Answer option B can be eliminated.
Let’s combine both the statements now, by taking some simple values that satisfy both statements together.
If y = 200 and x = -400, \(\frac{y}{x}\) = \(\frac{-1}{2}\) and \(\frac{x}{y}\) = -2. \(\frac{y}{x}\) > \(\frac{x}{y}\). Here, x < y ( remember, x is negative and y is positive).
If y = 200 and x = 10, \(\frac{y}{x}\) = 20 and \(\frac{x}{y}\) = \(\frac{1}{20}\).\(\frac{y}{x}\) > \(\frac{x}{y}\). Here also, x<y.
Therefore, we get a definite YES as an answer when we combine the statements. So, the correct answer option is C.
The average time for this kind of a question can be about 2 minutes.
Hope this helps!