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05 Oct 2014, 05:01
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C
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
75%
(hard)
Question Stats:
35% (01:44) correct
65%
(02:02)
wrong
based on 49
sessions
History
Date
Time
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Not Attempted Yet
The new recruits of a military organization who score in the bottom 16% on their physical conditioning tests are required to retest. If the scores are normally distributed and have an arithmetic mean of 72, what is the the score at or below which the recruits are required to retest?
(1) There are 500 new recruits.
(2) 10 new recruits scored at least 82 on the physical conditioning test.
****
The (summarized) official explanation: By combining (1) and (2), we can now calculate that those 10 top-scoring recruits make up the top 2% of the class as a whole-- and since the scores are normally distributed, the top 2% represents the third standard deviation above the mean. If the mean is 72, and the third standard deviation above the mean begins at 82, then there are 2 standard deviations (first and second) between 72 and 82. We now know that one standard deviation equals 5 points, so that bottom 16%-- also known as the second and third standard deviation below the mean-- are those who score at or below 67. The correct answer is C.
I never encountered a problem involving normal distribution before. Can anybody explain how to determine this: "... and since the scores are normally distributed, the top 2% represents the third standard deviation above the mean."? Thank you in advance!
(1) There are 500 new recruits.
(2) 10 new recruits scored at least 82 on the physical conditioning test.
****
The (summarized) official explanation: By combining (1) and (2), we can now calculate that those 10 top-scoring recruits make up the top 2% of the class as a whole-- and since the scores are normally distributed, the top 2% represents the third standard deviation above the mean. If the mean is 72, and the third standard deviation above the mean begins at 82, then there are 2 standard deviations (first and second) between 72 and 82. We now know that one standard deviation equals 5 points, so that bottom 16%-- also known as the second and third standard deviation below the mean-- are those who score at or below 67. The correct answer is C.
I never encountered a problem involving normal distribution before. Can anybody explain how to determine this: "... and since the scores are normally distributed, the top 2% represents the third standard deviation above the mean."? Thank you in advance!
05 Oct 2014, 05:29
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Hedwig
Ignore this question. The 68.2-95.4-99.7 rule of normal distribution you are supposed to use to solve this question is not tested on the GMAT.
Topic locked.
