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Difficulty:
55%
(hard)
Question Stats:
52%
(01:38)
correct 48%
(01:07)
wrong
based on 21
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
Sets S and T consist solely of positive integers. Sets S and T contain the same number of elements, n, where n ≥ 2 and no element appears more than once within a set. Is the standard deviation of set S greater than the standard deviation of set T ?
(1) The range of set S is greater than the range of set T.
(2) Each element of set T is 3 greater than each element of set S.
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This question makes no sense. Statement 2 is meaningless, logically. It cannot be true that "each element in S is 3 greater than each element in T", because then each element in S would have several values. Maybe they mean "each element in S is 3 greater than *some* element in T", in which case, since all of the elements of T are distinct, we'd have two sets like the following:
T = a, b, c S = a+3, b+3, c+3
Of course the sets might be larger or smaller, but regardless, adding 3 to every element in T won't change the standard deviation, so S and T would have equal standard deviations.
But adding 3 to each element of T also won't change the range, so if I'm guessing correctly what they mean by Statement 2, then it's impossible for Statement 1 to also be true, and the statements are inconsistent, which can't happen in a GMAT DS question. So the question is fundamentally problematic for several reasons. One thing we can say for sure though is that Statement 1 is not sufficient alone, since a set can have a larger range but smaller standard deviation than another set.
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